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beks73 [17]
2 years ago
11

What is the number nearest to 10000 which is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8?.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Luba_88 [7]2 years ago
3 0

The nearest number is 10080 if the number is nearest to 10000 which is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8.

<h3>What is LCM?</h3>

It is defined as the common number of two integers, which is the lowest number that is a multiple of two or more numbers. The full name of LCM is the least common multiple.

It is given that:

The number nearest to 10000 is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8.

TO find the number:

Find the LCM of 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8:

LCM = 760

= 10000/760

There are two possibilities:

= 10000 - 760 = 9240

or 10000 + (840 - 760) = 10080

The nearest number = 10080

Thus, the nearest number is 10080 if the number is nearest to 10000 which is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8.

Learn more about the LCM here:

brainly.com/question/20739723


#SPJ4

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Use the Factor Theorem and synthetic division to show x + 5 is a factor of f(x) = 2x3 + 7x2 − 14x + 5
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

Factor theorem: f(-5) = 0.

Synthetic division: f(x) = (x + 5)\, (2\, x^2 -3\, x + 1).

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>Factor Theorem</h3>

By the factor theorem, a monomial of the form (x - a) (where a is a constant) is a factor of polynomial f(x) if and only if f(a) = 0.

In this question, the monomial is (x + 5), which is equivalently (x - (-5)). a = -5.

\begin{aligned}& f(-5) \\ &= 2 \times (-5)^{3} + 7 \times (-5)^{2}- 14\times (-5) + 5\\ &= -250 + 175 + 70 + 5 \\ &= 0\end{aligned}.

Hence, by the factor theorem,  (x + 5), which is equivalent to (x - (-5)), is a factor of f(x).

<h3>Synthetic Division</h3>

\begin{aligned}& f(x) \\ &= 2\, x^{3} + 7\, x^{2} - 14\, x + 5 \\ &= \underbrace{(x + 5) \, (2\, x^2)}_{2\, x^{3} + 10\, x^{2}} - 3\, x^{2} - 14\, x + 5 \\ &= \underbrace{(x + 5) \, (2\, x^2)}_{2\, x^{3} + 10\, x^{2}} + \underbrace{(x + 5)\, (-3\, x)}_{-3\, x^{2} - 15\, x} + (x + 5) \\ &= (x + 5)\, (2\, x^{2} - 3\, x + 1)\end{aligned}.

The remainder is 0 when dividing f(x) by (x + 5). Hence, (x + 5)\! is a factor of f(x)\!.

6 0
3 years ago
Is 21/2:3 and 16:6 equivalent
Minchanka [31]
Answer
21/2:3 and 16:6 are not equivalent
6 0
2 years ago
Please help!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! ASAP!!!!!!!
vekshin1

Answer:

0 is the rational number

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, 0 is the rational number. Since we know, a rational number can be expressed as p/q, where p and q are integers and q is not equal to zero. Thus, we can express 0 as p/q, where p is equal to zero and q is an integer.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Skylar buys a one-gallon bottle of juice for $15.36. What is the unit rate of the cost of the juice per fluid ounce?
Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

$8.33

Step-by-step explanation:

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