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Aleks [24]
1 year ago
14

Can somebody help with these two?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kotegsom [21]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

14: 104.5 square inches

15: 706.5 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

14: 19x11= 209

209/2= 104.5 square inches

15: formula: pi times the radius squared

15x15= 225

225x3.14= 706.5 square inches

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Alicia took a friend for a birthday dinner. The total bill for dinner was $40.86 (including tax and a tip). If Alicia paid a 20.
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Answer:

$33.85

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the initial bill:

(100 + 20.7)% of X was paid

120.7/100 × X = 40.86

X = 40.86 × 100/120.7

X = 33.85252693

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3 years ago
What are the sides of each figure
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Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that random guesses are made for seven multiple choice questions on an SAT​ test, so that there are equals 7 ​trials, eac
NeTakaya

Answer: 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula for binomial probability :-

P(x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}, where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials , n is the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial.

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Now, the probability that the number x of correct answers is fewer than 4 will be :-

P(x

Hence, the probability that the number x of correct answers is fewer than 4 = 0.5

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is a because the measure of angle KGH is 25 degrees since it is an inscribed angle. Angle GKJ is 130 degrees because angle GKL is 50 degrees. Therefore angle J is equal to 25 degrees which makes the triangle an isosceles triangle since angle J and angle KGH are equal to one another.

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3 years ago
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