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OverLord2011 [107]
2 years ago
14

Why is a process view of organizations essential to becoming a successful manager?

Business
1 answer:
Mashutka [201]2 years ago
5 0

The reason why the  process view of organizations is essential to becoming a successful manager is due to the fact that it can help to liberate the managers from what is called the silo effect.

<h3>Who is a successful manager?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the persons that are under the helms of leadership that have shown themselves to be very effective in the work that they do and from the fact that they are able to carry out the tasks of delegation very well. Such a person is one that handles important and managerial tasks.

Hence we can say that the reason why the  process view of organizations is essential to becoming a successful manager is due to the fact that it can help to liberate the managers from what is called the silo effect.

Read more on successful manager here: brainly.com/question/14831445

#SPJ1

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How will you save money by buying a franchise?
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

B. You can get a volume discount on your products.

I hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
Ruben Company purchased $100,000 of Evans Company bonds at 100 plus $1,500 in accrued interest. The bond interest rate is 8% and
Damm [24]

Answer:

c. debit Investment-Evans Company Bonds, $100,000, and Interest Receivable $1,500; credit Cash $101,500

Explanation:

c. debit Investment-Evans Company Bonds, $100,000, and Interest Receivable $1,500; credit Cash $101,500

The interest is due on bonds of $ 100,00 so it is added to the total amount.

The other choices are incorrect as A does not account for interest due.

B does not indicate the amount of interest separately. D is wrong as interest is again deducted from the total of bonds also they are credited it is receivable not payable

3 0
3 years ago
Sawyer Manufacturing Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead
kupik [55]

Answer:

Underapplied Manufacturing Overhead $23,000

Explanation:

Sawyer Manufacturing Corporation

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated total manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated total amount of the allocation base

= $300,000 ÷ 52,000 direct labor hours

= 5.7 Approximately $6 per direct labor-hour

Overhead over or underapplied Actual MOH

= 365,000

Applied MOH = $6 x 57000 = $342,000

Underapplied Manufacturing Overhead = 365,000-342,000 = 23,000

Therefore The Corporation's applied manufacturing overhead cost for the year was $23,000

8 0
3 years ago
Anner Manufacturing is developing an activity-based costing system to improve overhead cost allocation. One of the first steps i
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

When you collect all the costs related to performing a particular activity (e.g. producing a product), you have created an activity cost pool. This helps to get an accurate estimate of the cost of that activity or task and is mostly applied in <em>activity-based costing system</em>. Different activities may require different cost pools.

The activities below are thus classified accordingly:

1. Labelling and Packaging - <em>Batch Cost Pool</em>

2. Plant Security - <em>Facility Level Cost Pool</em>

3. Sales Commission - <em>Product Cost Pool.</em> (This is incurred in selling the product and so must be pre-built into the price of the product.

4. Supplies - <em>Unit Level Cost Pool </em>(Supplies are incidental items that are expected to be consumed in the near future. Examples are paper clips that you use in the daily workings of the business. Supplies are differ from Materials which refer to the raw stock from which finished goods are made. Examples of material are raw materials, components, sub-components, and production supplies. Materials would go under Product Cost Pool.

Cheers!

3 0
4 years ago
esterday, Berryman Investments was selling for $50 per share. Today, the company completed a 7-for-2 stock split. If the total m
boyakko [2]

Answer:

The correct option is C, $14.29  

Explanation:

A 7-2 stock split means that 7 shares now have the value of 2 shares held previously.

This simply means that a stockholder who had 2 shares before the stock split now has 7 shares.

The price of the share after the stock split the value of 2 shares before stock split divided by 7 shares i.e   ($50*2)/7=$ 14.29  

The correct option from the multiple choices is $ 14.29  

4 0
3 years ago
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