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Yakvenalex [24]
1 year ago
5

what is the connection, if any, between comparative advantage (ca) and foreign direct investment (fdi)?

Business
1 answer:
Yuliya22 [10]1 year ago
6 0

CA has nothing to do with FDI. Countries often engage in FDI in industries where the country they invest in has a comparative disadvantage.

When a nation's businesses make investments abroad, it promotes comparative advantage CA in the same sector at home.

What is comparative advantage -

The ability to create goods and services at a lower opportunity cost, not necessarily at a higher volume or quality, is referred to as having a comparative advantage.

What is FDI-

An entity based in another country makes an investment in the form of controlling ownership in a company in another country. This investment is known as a foreign direct investment (FDI).

Learn more about CA and FDI here:

brainly.com/question/16412026

#SPJ4

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Social Security Multiple Choice Is a Defined Benefit Pension Plan Is offered by local governments Is an optional Pension Plan Is
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

In simple words, Retired, incapacity, as well as survivor payments are all part of the Social Security program. In its nature, it is very much like a defined benefit pension plan.

Most employees contribute Social Security levies on their income to apply for many of these claims; claimants' advantages are dependent on the wages earner's payments. Aside from that, benefits like Supplemental Security Income (SSI) are dependent on use.

4 0
2 years ago
) suppose that currency in circulation is $600 billion, the amount of checkable deposits is $900 billion, and excess reserves ar
Inessa05 [86]
Money supply = Currency in circulation + Checkable deposits.=600 + 900 = 1500 Billion

Current deposit ratio = Currency in Circulation/ Checkable deposits. = 600/900 = .667

Excessive reserve ratio = Excess Reserves/Checkable deposits.= 15/900 = .0167

Money multiplier = (1 + C)/(rr + ER + C)= (1 + .667)/ (.0278 + .0167 + .667) = 2.343
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the same number of units of good Y must be given up as each successive unit of good X is produced, then the PPF for these two
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

PPF : Downward Sloping Straight Line

Explanation:

PPF is the locus of product combinations that an economy can produce, given resources & technology.

It is downward sloping : Because of inverse relationship between two goods- if one has to be increased other has to be decreased , because of same resources & technology.

Marginal Opportunity Cost (Slope of PPC): is ratio of a good sacrifised to gain each additional unit of the other good.

∆ Good sacrifised / ∆ Good gained

If this ratio is same i.e constant amount of a good is sacrifised to gain an additional amount of the other one , the slope of PPC is constant & it is a straight line

Eg : Good1    Good2     MOC [∆Good2/∆Good1]

      0               20             _        

      10             10           -10/10 = -1                  (10-20)/(10-0)

       20              0           -10/10 = -1                   (0-10)(/20-10)

So , same (1) good 2 is sacrifised to attain a good 1 each time.

However Generally: MOC is increasing , because of assumption that resources are unequally efficient in various goods production - shifting good from efficient to inefficient increases sacrifise each time. This makes PPC usually concave.

5 0
3 years ago
XYZ DebenturesIssue Date: 8-1-XXPayment Dates: J 1 & J 1Maturity Date: 7-1-XXSome years after issuance, a customer buys 10 d
SashulF [63]

Answer:

B. 105 days of accrued interest

Explanation:

The purchase on Thursday, October 12th will settle on Monday, October 16th - 2 business days after trade date.  

Accrued interest on corporate bonds is based on a 30days per month/360 day year.

And interest starts accruing from the day of the last interest payment, up to, but not including, settlement.

See below for day calculation

July   30 days

August  30 days

September 30 days

October  15 days (up to but excluding settlement)

Total  105 days

4 0
3 years ago
A good is excludable if: a) Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits. b) It is not possi
N76 [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits.

Explanation:

The excludability feature of goods does not allow individuals to have access to them without having paid for them. Thus, non-excludable goods are those that no one cannot prevent its use. <em>Private goods</em> (clothing, vehicles, houses) are excludable but they are also considered rival goods since when one person uses it another individual cannot consume the goods.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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