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Valentin [98]
1 year ago
6

the vertebral column is composed of 33 bones before ____ ; some later fuse to form ____ separate bones.

Biology
1 answer:
Naddik [55]1 year ago
6 0

The vertebral column is composed of 33 bones before <u>fusing</u>; some later fuse to form 26 separate bones.

The vertebral column, also known as the backbone or spine, is a long, flexible column of bones extending from the skull to the tailbone. It is made up of 33 vertebrae, separated into five sections: the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. In between each vertebra is a disc of cartilage that acts as a shock absorber, allowing the bones to move independently of one another.

The vertebral column also houses the spinal cord, which is a bundle of nerves that runs from the brain to the lower back. It is responsible for transmitting signals to and from the brain and body.

For more questions like Vertebral column click the link below:

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Each of the four pedigrees that follow represents a human family within which a genetic disease is segregating. Affected individ
Ne4ueva [31]

 Answer:

<u> The following four traits are -: </u>

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Explanation:

<u>Explaination of each pedigree chart</u>-

  • Pedigree 1 demonstrates the <u>recessive trait </u>since their children have been affected by two unaffected individuals. If the characteristics were X-linked, in order to have an affected daughter, I-1 would have to be affected. X^A In this, both parents are autosomal recessive trait carriers, so the child will be affected by a 1/4 (aa)
  • <u> Recessive inheritance</u> is defined by <u>Pedigree 2</u>. This is<u> X-related inheritance as autosomal recessive</u> inheritance has already been accounted for in part 1. This inference is confirmed by evidence showing that the father (I-1) is unaffected and that only the sons exhibit the characteristic in generation II, suggesting that the mother must be the carrier. The individual I-2 is a carrier for this X-linked trait. A typical  Xa chromosome is attached to the unaffected father (I-1), so the chance of carrier II-5 is 1/2. Probability of an affected son = 1/2 (probability II-5 is a carrier) x 1/2 (probability II -5 contributes (X^A) x 1/2 (probability of Y from father II-6) = 1/8. An affected daughter's likelihood is 0 because a typical X^A must be contributed by II-6.
  • The inheritance of the<u> dominant trait</u> is demonstrated by <u>Pedigree 3 </u>because affected children still have affected parents (remember that all four diseases are rare). The trait must be <u>autosomal dominant</u> because it is passed down to the son by the affected father. There is a 1/2 risk that the heterozygous mother (II-5) would pass on mutant alleles to a child of either sex for an autosomal dominant feature.
  • <u>Pedigree 4</u> is an <u>X-linked dominant function</u> characterized by the transmission to all of his daughters from the affected father but none of his son. On the mutant X chromosome, the father (I-1) passes on to all his daughters and none of his sons. As seen by his normal phenotype, II-6 therefore does not bear the mutation. An affected child's likelihood is 0.    

In the question the pedigree chart was missing ,hence it is given below.

     

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