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lianna [129]
1 year ago
12

why is allowance for doubtful accounts credited, instead of accounts receivable, when recording the adjusting entry for bad debt

s? multiple choice question. allowance for doubtful accounts is not credited; accounts receivable is credited when recording the adjusting entry for bad debts. allowance for doubtful accounts is credited because if accounts receivable were credited, the assets would be overstated. allowance for doubtful accounts is credited because if accounts receivable were credited, the assets would be understated. accounts receivable consists of many customer accounts and thus cannot be credited unless it is known which specific customer is not going to pay.
Business
1 answer:
alukav5142 [94]1 year ago
7 0

The allowance for doubtful accounts credited, instead of accounts receivable when recording the adjusting entry for bad debts  Because accounts receivable is made up of numerous client accounts, it cannot be credited unless it is known which particular customer will not pay.

The provision for questionable accounts is referred to as a "counter asset" since it reduces the value of an asset, in this example, the accounts receivable. The compensation, often known as a doubtful account, is management's projection of the amount of accounts receivable that customers will not pay. Let's assume, using the aforementioned example, that on June 30 a business reports an accounts receivable debit balance of $1,000,000. The business predicts that $50,000 will not be converted into cash and expects some consumers won't be able to pay the full amount.

learn more about  doubtful account visit brainly.com/question/28944789

#SPJ4

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Answer:

(a). Depreciation for 1st year= $24,000

Depreciation for 2nd year= $24,000

(b). 1st Year Depreciation = $20,000

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(c) 1st year Depreciation= $60,000

2nd year Depreciation = $36,000

Explanation:

a).

Annual Depreciation of Equipment = (Cost of Equipment - Residual Value) ÷ Useful Life of Equipment

= ($150,000 - $30,000) ÷ 5

= $24,000

Rate of Straight Line Depreciation = Annual Depreciation of Equipment ÷ (Cost of Equipment - Residual Value) × 100

= 24,000 ÷ ( $150,000 - 30,000) × 100

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Depreciation for 1st year= $24,000

Depreciation for 2nd year= $24,000

b). Unit Of Production For 1st Year Depreciation= (Cost Of Equipment -Residual Value) × Annual Production Units ÷ Total Operating Hours

= ($150,000 - $30,000) × 2,500 ÷ 15,000 = $20,000

Unit of Production for 2nd year depreciation = ( $150,000 - $30,000) × 32,50 ÷ 15,000

= $26,000

c). Declining Balance Depreciation Rate = Straight Line Depreciation Rate × 2

= 20% × 2 = 40%   (Because Declining Balance at Twice the Straight Line Rate)

1st year Depreciation= $150,000 × 40÷100 = $60,000

2nd year Depreciation = ($150,000 - $60,000) × 40÷100 =$36,000

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The actual cost of direct materials is $10.50 per pound. The standard cost per pound is $11.75. 42) During the current period 10
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Answer:

Direct materials efficiency variance =  1175 unfavorable

so correct option is C) $1,175 unfavorable

Explanation:

given data

actual cost = $10.50 per pound

standard cost per pound =  $11.75

current period  = 10,000 pounds

purchased = 11,500 pounds

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to find out

direct materials efficiency variance

solution

we get here Direct materials efficiency variance that is express as

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Direct materials efficiency variance =  1175 unfavorable

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