Based on the labor cost, and output of the process, the multifactor productivity for the week is 3.06.
<h3>What is the multifactor productivity for Week 1?</h3>
This can be found by the formula:
= Cost in week 1 / Value of output in week 1
Cost in week 1:
= Labor + Material + Overheads
= 12,195 + 21,392 + 8,546
= $42,133
Value of product:
= 110 x 1,173 units
= $129,030
Multifactor productivity is:
= 129,030 / 42,133
= 3.06
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Because the demand between points A and B is inelastic, a $25-per-bike increase in price will lead to an increase, in total revenue per day.
in order for a price decrease to cause a decrease in total revenue, demand must be inelastic.
<h3>What is the price elasticity of demand? </h3>
Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price of the good.
When the coefficient of elasticity is less than one, it means that demand is inelastic. When demand is inelastic, it means that the quantity demanded is not sensitive to changes in price.
Price elasticity of demand = midpoint change in quantity demanded / midpoint change in price
Midpoint change in quantity demanded = change in quantity demanded / average of both demands
- change in quantity demanded = 40 - 35 = 5
- Average of both demands = (40 + 35) / 2 = 37.50
- Midpoint change in quantity demanded = 5 / 37.50 = 0.133
Midpoint change in price = change in price / average of both price
- Change in price = 100 - 125 = -25
- Average of both prices = (100 + 125) / 2 = 112.50
- Midpoint change in price = -25 / 112,50 = -0,222
Midpoint elasticity of demand = 0.133 / -0,222 = 0.6
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Answer:
$0.5 per box
Explanation:
From CVP analysis,
The break-even point = Fixed cost/contribution margin per unit
For Fiona
Break-even point =$120 boxes, fixed costs = $300
Contribution margin per init = selling price - variable costs
selling price =$5: variable costs, cookies cost $2 per box, and chocolate chips
therefore
120 = $300/ Contribution margin per unit
$120 = $300/ CM
CM = $300/$120
CM = $2.5
Contribution margin = selling price - variable costs
$2.5 = $5- cookies - chocolate chips
$2.5 =$5 - $2- chocolate chips
$2.5 -$3-chocolate
chocolate chips = $3-$2.5
=$0.5 per box
Answer:
The dollar variance is -$100.
The percent variance is -20%.
Since the actual income is less than the budgeted income, the variance is unfavorable (U).
We calculate Dollar Variance as : 

Next, we calculate percent variance as :

Plugging the values in we get,

Percent Variance = -20%
Answer:
$150,000
Explanation:
Jack will distribute 50,000 shares / 10 = 5,000 shares
to determine the amount by retained earnings should decrease we must multiply 5,000 times the market value on the sate of declaration = 5,000 shares x $30 = $150,000
Retained earnings accounts includes all the accumulated earnings after dividends have been distributed. Dividend distributions always lower retained earnings account since without any credit balance in that account, dividends cannot be distributed.