Answer:
- 340
Step-by-step explanation:
The sum to n terms of an AP is
= ( a + l ) → a is the first term and l the last term
Here a = - 76 and = - 9360 , thus
( - 76 + l ) = - 9360
22.5(- 76 + l) = - 9360 ( divide both sides by 22.5 )
- 76 + l = - 416 ( add 76 to both sides )
l = - 340 ← the last term in the sequence
In probability, there is an equation appropriate for repeated trials. This concept is used to find the probability of an event happening when a number of a series of trials are done. The equation is:
n!/r!(n-r)! * p^(n-r) * q^r, where
n is the number of total number of trials
r is the number of success from the trials
p is the binomial probability of the event happening
q is equal to 1 - p
It is important to note that probability is a part of the whole. In this problem, we are to find the probability of at least one defect. That means it encompasses also the probability of 2, 3, and 4 defects. To be easier, let's just find the probability of no defect, then find subtract this to 1, to get the answer.
So, r=0 defects, n=4 trials, p = 10% defect rate, q = 90%. Substituting,
4!/0!(4-0)! * (0.1)^(4-0) * (0.9)^(0) = 0.0001
That means the probability of at least one defect is 1 - 0.0001 = 0.9999.
Every hour he bikes 13 miles:)))
Answer:
A: Yes, I agree. Why? Because if you look at the shape, its a triangle right, and a triangle both sides are equal, while the bottom line is not. But because both sides are equal, and half of the triangle is MPN and the other side is QPN, they both are congruent (or equal to)
B: Like I said, both MPN and QPN are both equal, and if you remove the P, it would still be the same because the shape has not changed.
I hope I helped :)
Answer:
C brainliest?
Step-by-step explanation: