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Tasya [4]
1 year ago
14

Order the following integers from least to greatest.-41, -53, -73, -78 A. -78, -53, -73, -41 B. -78, -73, -41, -53 C. -73, -78,

-53, -41 D. -78, -73, -53, -41
Mathematics
1 answer:
irakobra [83]1 year ago
3 0

The value of negative integers decreases the further we get from the 0 point on the number line.

Therefore, if we arrange the numbers in ascending order ignoring the negative sign, the numbers will be in descending order when the negative sign is included.

By the definition above, we can say that the smallest number of the lot is -78 and the largest one is -41.

The numbers can be ordered from least to greatest as shown below:

-78,-73,-53,-41

OPTION D is the correct answer.

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Shtirlitz [24]
<h3>Answer: Choice C)  $1125</h3>

==============================================================

Explanation:

We'll add up the values in the bottom row of the table.

A value like +150 is the same as simply saying 150

The negatives stick around.

Adding up the values in that row gets us

150 + (-50) + 400 + 300 + (-175) + (-250) = 375

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In Sweden, 10 people are struck by lightning every year, on average. Answer thefollowing questions about a given year in Sweden
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

a) 19.85% probability that a total of two people are struck by lightning during first four months of the year.

b) 22.68% probability that the year has 5 good and 7 bad months

Step-by-step explanation:

We are going to use the Poisson distribution and the binomial distribition to solve this question.

Poisson distribution:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given time interval.

Binomial distribution:

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

a.Find the probability that a total of two people are struck by lightning during first four months of the year.

10 people during a year(12 months).

In 4 months, the mean is \mu = \frac{10*4}{12} = 3.33

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-3.33}*(3.33)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.1985

19.85% probability that a total of two people are struck by lightning during first four months of the year.

b.Say that a month is good is no one is struck by lightning, and bad otherwise. Find the probability that the year has 5 good and 7 bad months.

Probability that a month is good.

P(X = 0), Poisson

The mean is \mu = \frac{10*1}{12} = 0.8333

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.8333}*(0.8333)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.4346

Find the probability that the year has 5 good and 7 bad months.

Now we use the binomial distribution, we want P(X = 5) when n = 12, p = 0.4346. So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.4346)^{5}.(0.5654)^{7} = 0.2268

22.68% probability that the year has 5 good and 7 bad months

3 0
3 years ago
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