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Nina [5.8K]
1 year ago
6

on november 1, 2021, a company signed a $100,000, 6%, six-month note payable with the amount borrowed plus accrued interest due

six months later on may 1, 2022. the company should report interest payable at december 31, 2021, in the amount of: multiple choice $2,000. $3,000. $1,000. $0.
Business
1 answer:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]1 year ago
5 0

Sx-month note is payable with the amount borrowed plus accrued interest due six months later on May 1, 2022. Interest Payable will be reported for two months i.e. November and December is $1000.

Interest Payable = $100000 × 6% x 2/12 = $1000,

Could I borrow your pen for a moment, please? The common verb borrow means to obtain something from someone with the intention of returning it shortly. I used to give Laura frequent loans of cash. An amount over and above the repayment of the principal sum is known as interest and is paid by a borrower or deposit-taking financial institution to a lender or depositor at a set rate. Interest is the cost of borrowing money or the fee you charge to lend it. Most frequently, interest is shown as an annual percentage of the loan amount. The interest rate for the loan is denoted by this proportion.

Learn more about interest here :

brainly.com/question/27584159

#SPJ4

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Taggart Inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the projects payback? Year 0 1 2 3 Cash flo
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

The period of payback of the project is 2.30 years. Therefore, the correct answer is C

Explanation:

We will computing the Cumulative Cash Flow from Year 0 to Year 3

Cumulative Cash Flow Year 0 = Cash Flow of Year 0

= -$1,150

Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 1 = Cash Flow of Year 1 + Cash Flow of Year 0

= $500 + (-$1,150)

= -$650

Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 2 =  Cash Flow of Year 2 + Cumulative Cash Flow Cash Flow of Year 1

= $500 + (-$650)

= -$150

Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 3 =  Cash Flow of Year 3 + Cumulative Cash Flow Cash Flow of Year 2

= $500 + (-$150)

= $350

Now, Computing the Pay back period with the formula:

Pay back period = 2 + (Cumulative Cash Flow of year 2 / Cash flow of year 3)

= 2 + (-$150/ $500)

= 2 +  0.3

= 2.3 years

5 0
3 years ago
define Goodwill......... should it be considered as an asset and State the reason why it is controversial in a business today​
Lana71 [14]

Answer:established reputation of a business regarded as a quantifiable asset and calculated as part of its value when it is sold.

Explanation:if Company A buys Company B for more than the fair value of Company B's assets and debts, the amount left over is listed on Company A's balance sheet as goodwill.

8 0
3 years ago
Why might long-term interest rates go down at the same time that the federal reserve pushes short-term rates up?
mart [117]
<span>Because the federal reserve would want to discourage quick investments or want people to save more money right now. Long term rates would go down because these are well thought out infrastructure projects that are good for the long run.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
ECONOMICS, PLEASE HELP.
Nina [5.8K]

Equilibrium is the point where supply meets demand. Look at the table and see where those two columns are the same.

For B. look at the chart and see at 1,50 rent (the first column) the demand is greater than supply or not. If demand is less than supply, there is a surplus. If demand is higher, there is a shortage.

This applies to question C as well. Look at the first column, find the rent, and see if there is more supply or more demand.


3 0
4 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
3 years ago
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