Answer:
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Computation of allocation of factory overhead cost for the Job NO 117:
Now, computing the rate of overhead allocation as:
Pre- determined rate of overhead allocation = Estimated aggregate overhead / estimated number of labor hours
where
Estimated aggregate overhead is $95,000
Estimated number of labor hours is 9,500 hours
Putting the values above:
= $95,000 / 9,500 hours
= $10 per hour.
Computing the overhead cost to be allocated to Job No 117 as:
Overhead cost to be allocated to Job No 117 = Number of direct labor hours × pre- determined rate of overhead
where
Number of direct labor hours is 2,300 hours
Pre- determined rate of overhead allocation is 10 per hour
Putting the values above:
= 2,300 hours × $10 per hour
= $23,000
Answer:
$ 9,387.50
Explanation:
An asset is any item that the owner considers valuable.
Shares , the cars and figurines are assets as Latoya can attach a value to them.
Total value of the shares = 50 x 35.75 = 1, 787.5
Value of the car = $5,600
Figurines = $ 2,000
Total value of assets = 1,787.50+ $5,600 + $2,000
=$ 9,387.50
The amount of money that I would have in the bank account at the end of one year is $1,100.
The real interest rate I would expect to earn on the deposit is 6%.
If I am saving for a gaming computer, at the end of next year I would have enough money.
<h3>What is the value of the money by next year?</h3>
The formula that can be used to determine the money in my bank account next year is:
FV = P (1 + r)^n
Where:
FV = Future value
P = Present value
R = interest rate
N = number of years
1000 x (1.1)^1 = $1,100
<h3>What is the real interest rate?</h3>
The real interest rate is the nominal interest rate less inflation rate.
The real interest rate = 10% - 4% = 6%
To learn more about future value, please check: brainly.com/question/18760477
Answer:
false
Explanation:
False. The location-specific advantages argument associated with John Dunning does help explain the direction of FDI. However, the location-specific advantages argument does not explain why firms prefer FDI to licensing or to exporting.
quizlet
Answer:
The answer is 9.85%
Explanation:
The number of periods N = 9years(10 years minus 1 year ago)
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = ?
Present value of the bond (PV) = $950.70
Future value of the bond(FV) = $1,000
Annual payment (PMT) = $90 (9% x $1,000)
Using a financial calculator to solve the problem ( BA II plus Texas instruments):
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = 9.85%
