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Snowcat [4.5K]
1 year ago
8

The formula used to calculate the value of a savings accounty =(1+)120What does theafter t years is A(t)=0.04= 1500 1+120.04frac

tion represent?12y=a(1)aeAthe daily interest rateB how long the money has been in the accountCthe monthly interest rateD the starting balance in the account

Mathematics
1 answer:
yulyashka [42]1 year ago
7 0

We have here the formula for Compound Interest:

A=P(1+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

Where:

• A is the accrued amount.

,

• P is the Principal (the original amount of money, the starting amount of money).

,

• r is the interest rate.

,

• n is the number of times per year compounded.

,

• t is the time in years.

When we have that n is equal to 12, we are talking here about that the amount of money is being compounded monthly (we have 12 months in a year, 12 periods, n = 12). <em>Therefore, we are dividing the rate, r, by the number of compoundings per year, n, and this is the rate per each new compounding period of time, r/n, and, in this case, n = 12 (monthly interest rate). </em>

Therefore, in few words, the fraction (0.04/12) is the monthly interest rate (option C).

[If we see the other options, we have:

• The daily interest rate would be given by 0.04/365.

,

• How long the money has been in the account is time, t.

,

• The starting balance in the account is the Principal, P. ]

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What are the first and last terms of this geometric series
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]
ANSWER

E. 10 and 640


EXPLANATION


The given series is

\sum_{i=1}^45 \times 2^{2i-1}


To find the first term of the series we substitute i=1 to get,


a_1 = 5 \times  {2}^{2 \times 1 - 1}


a_1 = 5 \times  {2}^{ 1}  = 10



For the last term of the series, we substitute i=4 to obtain,

a_4 = 5 \times  {2}^{2 \times 4 - 1}


a_4 = 5 \times  {2}^{7}



This implies that,


a_4 = 5 \times  128 = 640


Therefore the correct answer is E
7 0
3 years ago
Research the keywords "shaping by successive approximation" on the Internet. Shaping is a
NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

The concept of "shaping" is: "a term of behaviur that refers to slowly shaping or educating an organ to execute a particular response by improving any responses that come even close to the desired answer.

Let's take one rat example.

Here, in an experiment, a researcher may use moulding technique to coach a rat to push a lever.

To begin with, the researcher may award the rat if it does any movement in the lever direction at all. The rat will then simply take a step towards to the lever to be rewarded. Likewise, as the rat moves over to the lever and so forth, the rat also gets a reward before just pushing the lever generates reward.

Here the behaviour of the rat was 'formed' in order to make it push the lever. According to the example, any time the rat is awarded, it is praised for a "successive approximation" or for behaving in a manner that is nearer to the desired behaviour or result.

Likewise, algebraic equations are also progression steps and step-by - step progression allows solve the issue.

8 0
3 years ago
2(1 - 3y) - 13x ik the answer idk how to show the work plz help KEY: y = -9 x = 4
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

The answer is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

2(1 - 3y) - 13x

2(1−(3)(−9))−(13)(4)

56-52

=4

4 0
3 years ago
Distance between (-4,0) and (2,2)
svetlana [45]
(4,2) is is the distance from these coordinates
5 0
2 years ago
DUE BY 11:59 PM!!<br><br>HELP GREATLY APPRECIATED!!​
aksik [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. There are only 4 numbers including 5 that follow the "five or more" requirment, and the probability of spinning it once is 4/8, or 1/2. (The total sections is 8) Then we multiply 1/2 and 1/2 together to get the "two times in a row" requirement done. (1/2)*(1/2)= 1/4 is the probability.

2. There are two values on the spinner that are a multiple of 3, 3 itself and 6. Again, the total amount of numbers/sections is 8, so the probability of spinning a multiple of three is 2/8 or 1/4. The probability of spinning an odd number is 4/8 or 1/2. (1/2)*(1/4)=1/8 is the probability.

3. The probability of spinning one odd number is 1/2, and so we multiply 1/2 by itself four times. (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)=1/16 is the probability.

4. There are 6 numbers greater than two on the number wheel not including two itself. So the probability of that is 6/8, or 3/4. Then we multiply 3/4 by itself 3 times as it asks. (3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)=81/256 is the probability.

Note that I am not really sure about the answer myself, but I hope that this can help in some way. Good luck! :)

5 0
3 years ago
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