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miss Akunina [59]
1 year ago
8

lauryn’s doll co. had ebit last year of $45 million, which is net of a depreciation expense of $4.5 million. in addition, lauryn

’s made $4.25 million in capital expenditures and increased net working capital by $4.1 million. assume that lauryn’s has a reported equity beta of 1.5, a debt-to-equity ratio of .3, and a tax rate of 21 percent. what is lauryn’s fcf for the year?(do not round intermediate calculations. enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
dem82 [27]1 year ago
5 0

If Lauryn's has a reported equity beta of 1.5, a debt-to-equity ratio of .3, and a tax rate of 21 percent.. The Free Cash Flow (FCF) of Lauryn's for the year is 20.45

FCF = (EBIT -Depreciation)× ( 1- Tax rate) + Depreciation - Capital expenditure - Working Capital investment = (45 -4.5 ) × ( 1 - 40%) + 4.5 - 4.25 -4.1 = 20.45

Beta Asset = Beta Equity /( 1 + (1-tax rate)×D/E) = 1.5/( 1 + ( 1-40%)× 0.3) = 1.2712

According To Capm WACC = Risk free rate + Betaasset × Market Risk Premium = 4% + 1.2712 × 12% = 19.2544%

Value of The firm = FCFF × ( 1+growth)/(Return - Growth) = 20.45 × 1.02/(19.2544% - 2%) = 120.89 million

  • Free cash flow (FCF) is the money a business makes after subtracting the cash it must spend to run its business and maintain its capital assets. Or to put it another way, free cash flow is the money that remains after a business pays its operating expenses (OpEx) and capital expenditures (CapEx).
  • A corporation may do whatever it wants with FCF, which is the money that is left over after paying for expenses like labor, rent, and taxes. A company's cash management will be aided by knowing how to compute and analyze free cash flow. Investors can improve their investment choices by using the FCF calculation to get insight into a company's financials.

Learn more about Free cash flow (FCF), here

brainly.com/question/16852008

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7 0
3 years ago
Jada converted her personal residence to rental property in 2018. She purchased the property in 2014 for $110,000, of which $10,
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

a)Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.

b) Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.

Explanation:

Due to a decline in the property values over the past few years Jada has converted her personal residence to rental property and/or investment property which is a subject dealt within IAS 40 (Investment property).

According to IAS 40 an investment property is land or building held to earn rentals or for capital appreciation or both rather than use in the entity. IAS 40 requires to initially measure investment property at cost and subsequently may either measure at cost or fair value model. Fair value is normally established by prevailing market prices.

IAS 40 also mentions that if an asset is revalued to fair value the gain and loss should be recorded in statement of profit and loss and 'NO DEPRECIATION IS CHARGED ON THE ASSET AFTER THE FAIR VALUE MEASUREMENT'.

Therefore, following the instructions laid out by IAS 40 Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.

2) Personal property with no intrinsic value:

Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.

Lets first understand what intrinsic value is. Intrinsic value of an asset refers to the market led and/or market-driven price of that asset. This means those assets which don't have an active market for sale and purchase will have no intrinsic value. This is absolutely the case with intangible assets, because most intangible assets are unique and uncommon, such as, GOODWILL, PATENTS, COPYRIGHTS, therefore due to the uniqueness and exclusivity of such assets an active market place doesn't exist therefore it's hard to determine an intrinsic value for such kind of assets/ properties.

5 0
3 years ago
A Registered Representative sold a deferred variable annuity to an unmarried 18 year old high school senior who had just inherit
vova2212 [387]

Answer:

c)

Explanation:

The costumer has no spouse or dependents.  This negates the value of the death benefit.  The founds has no liquid due to the surrender fees, and there is also 10% penalty on withdrawals before age 59.5

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3 years ago
Hii! I got a question, if a brainly expert or tutor can answer that would be great!
kupik [55]

Answer:

As an Ambitious member, you're climbing your way up the Brainly ranks one great answer at a time! The rank after Expert is Ace! And it just depends on the level you are on. On expert, you have to have 10 Brainlist to get to Ace. Then you have to have 50 Brainlist to reach the level after!

Explanation:

Hope this helped! :)

Have a good day!

5 0
2 years ago
Tayco Corporation has just paid dividends of $3 per share. The earnings per share for the company was $4. If you believe that th
tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

the price earning ratio is 8.33

Explanation:

The computation of the price earning ratio is shown below:

P/E Ratio is

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= 3 × 106

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And, the earning per share is

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So, the price earning ratio is

= (3 × (1.06) ÷  4(1.06)÷ (0.15 -0.06))

= 8.33

Hence, the price earning ratio is 8.33

8 0
3 years ago
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