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miss Akunina [59]
1 year ago
8

lauryn’s doll co. had ebit last year of $45 million, which is net of a depreciation expense of $4.5 million. in addition, lauryn

’s made $4.25 million in capital expenditures and increased net working capital by $4.1 million. assume that lauryn’s has a reported equity beta of 1.5, a debt-to-equity ratio of .3, and a tax rate of 21 percent. what is lauryn’s fcf for the year?(do not round intermediate calculations. enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
dem82 [27]1 year ago
5 0

If Lauryn's has a reported equity beta of 1.5, a debt-to-equity ratio of .3, and a tax rate of 21 percent.. The Free Cash Flow (FCF) of Lauryn's for the year is 20.45

FCF = (EBIT -Depreciation)× ( 1- Tax rate) + Depreciation - Capital expenditure - Working Capital investment = (45 -4.5 ) × ( 1 - 40%) + 4.5 - 4.25 -4.1 = 20.45

Beta Asset = Beta Equity /( 1 + (1-tax rate)×D/E) = 1.5/( 1 + ( 1-40%)× 0.3) = 1.2712

According To Capm WACC = Risk free rate + Betaasset × Market Risk Premium = 4% + 1.2712 × 12% = 19.2544%

Value of The firm = FCFF × ( 1+growth)/(Return - Growth) = 20.45 × 1.02/(19.2544% - 2%) = 120.89 million

  • Free cash flow (FCF) is the money a business makes after subtracting the cash it must spend to run its business and maintain its capital assets. Or to put it another way, free cash flow is the money that remains after a business pays its operating expenses (OpEx) and capital expenditures (CapEx).
  • A corporation may do whatever it wants with FCF, which is the money that is left over after paying for expenses like labor, rent, and taxes. A company's cash management will be aided by knowing how to compute and analyze free cash flow. Investors can improve their investment choices by using the FCF calculation to get insight into a company's financials.

Learn more about Free cash flow (FCF), here

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Answer:

6.0%

Explanation:

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Interest rate before taxes = 8.8%

Annual after-tax rate of return if bond matures in 10 years will be the same as the annual after tax rate of return since the annual rate is constant.

Hence,

Annual after tax rate of return = Interest rate × (1 - tax rate)

Annual after tax rate = 8.8% × (1 - 32%)

Annual after tax rate = 0.088 × (1 - 0.32)

Annual after tax rate = 0.088 × 0.68

Annual after tax rate = 0.05984

= 0.05984 × 100%

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6 0
3 years ago
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bixtya [17]

APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of leverage.

<h3>How to illustrate the information?</h3>

It should be noted that the adjusted present value (APV) is used to value a project.

The weighted cost of capital (WACC) implies the rate at which a company is expected to pay all its security holders in order to finance its assets.

In conclusion, APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of leverage.

<u>Complete question:</u>

APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of ...........

a. leverage

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3 0
2 years ago
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The Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) is a model that captures scarcity and the opportunity costs of choices when faced with the possibility of producing two goods or services. Points on the interior of the P PC are inefficient, points on the P PC are efficient, and points beyond the PPC are unattainable

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WHY 19/20? I think 19-20/(19+20)/2
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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