Answer:
The price was decreased by 40%
Step-by-step explanation:
Take the original price and subtract the new price
20-12 = 8
Divide by the original price
8/20 = .4
Change to a percent
40 %
The price was decreased by 40%
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:3
Step-by-step explanation:
You need to implement the process of "flip-flop" and multiply which is where you flip the second fraction and multiply.

÷

⇒

×

Now you multiply across. 2×15=30 and 3×11=33
So now it is

-----------------------------------------------------------
To reduce to the lowest terms, find the GCF common factor
The GCF is 3
Divide both the numerator and denominator by 3

÷

=

Answer:
Remove unnecessary parenthesis.
-5k 3 - 6k +1 - 6k 2 + 5k (simplify each term) -15k - 6k + 1 - 12k +5k = -28k +1
Answer: 28k + 1