For example...
if you have a mixed fraction 1 1/2, and change it to fraction greater than one, it would be 3/2 (which is 1 or 2/2 + 1/2)
The total number of tries = 10
The tries are { <span>110 111 100 000 101 111 100 000 011 010 }
</span><span />
Where: 0 representing heads and 1 representing tails
The tries which are heads came up more than once in 3 coin flips { 100 000 100 000 010 }
The number of the tries which are heads came up more than once in 3 coin flips = 5
∴ The probability of heads coming up more than once in 3 coin flips = 5/10 = 1/2
Answer:
The length of the pencils is 4.1 inches and for the crayons 1.5 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
We can solve by means of a 2x2 system of equations, we have to:
let "x" be the length of the pencils
let "y" be the length of the crayons
4 * x + 3 * y = 20.9
5 * x + 4 * y = 26.5 => x = (26.5 - 4 * y) / 5
Replacing:
4 * (26.5 - 4 * y) / 5 + 3 * y = 20.9
21.2 - 3.2 * y + 3 * y = 20.9
-0.2 * y = 20.9 - 21.2
y = -0.3 / -0.2
y = 1.5
now for x:
x = (26.5 - 4 * 1.5) / 5
x = 4.1
This means that the length of the pencils is 4.1 inches and for the crayons 1.5 inches
We can solve this problem using the binomial distribution. A binomial distribution<span> can be thought of as a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times.
</span>Probability function of binomial distribution has the following form:

p represents the probability of each choice we want. k is the number of choices we want and n is the total number of choices.
In our case p=0.85, k=5 and n=6.
We can now calculate the answer:

The probability is 39%.
.
#7
20%•$300
$60
300-60
240
Hope this helps!!