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ss7ja [257]
2 years ago
6

A political analyst conducted an observational study in 2014 that measured the rate of voter dissatisfaction with the United Sta

tes Congress in several United States congressional districts and the increase in the number of political attack advertisements televised in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle.
The study concluded that the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the districts is comparable to the rate of increase of televised political attack ads in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle. Based on this data, which conclusion is valid?

O The high level of voter dissatisfaction caused voters to vote the congressmen representing the observed districts out of office.

O The increase in the rate of televised political attack ads since the previous congressional election caused the high rate of voter dissatisfaction in the observed districts.

O There is correlation between the increase in the rate of televised political attack ads since the previous congressional election and the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the observed districts.

O There is no correlation between the increase in the rate of televised political attack ads since the previous congressional election and the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the observed districts.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]2 years ago
5 0

Based on the results of the study, the conclusion which is valid is There is correlation between the increase in the rate of televised political attack ads since the previous congressional election and the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the observed districts.

<h3>What does the study conclude?</h3>

The study showed that the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the districts since the previous election cycles is similar to the rate of increase of televised political attack ads.

The fact that both the rate of voter dissatisfaction and televised political attack ads moved together means that they correlate with each other.

It is important to note however, that correlation does not equate causation so there might be no link between the two rates.

Find out more on correlation at brainly.com/question/26998752

#SPJ1

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