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Ulleksa [173]
1 year ago
8

Which of these nonterminating decimals can be converted into a rational number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
VARVARA [1.3K]1 year ago
7 0

The non-terminating decimal that can be converted into a rational number is given by:

0.321321321.

<h3>What are rational and irrational numbers?</h3>

  • Rational numbers are numbers that can be represented by fractions, with examples such as numbers that have no decimal parts, or numbers in which the decimal parts are terminating or repeating.
  • Irrational numbers are numbers that cannot be represented by fractions, being non-terminating and non-repeating decimals, such as non-exact square roots, and the most common example of an irrational number is the number pi = 3.1415....

In the context of this problem, we are given four non-terminating decimal numbers, in which the only one with a repeating decimal pattern is:

0.321321321...

In which the pattern is:

321.

Hence the number can be written as the following rational number = fraction:

321/999.

With 999 being due to the fact that the repeating pattern is composed by three digits.

More can be learned about rational numbers at brainly.com/question/12088221

#SPJ1

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right three million, eight hundred sixty-two thousand, seven hundred ninety-five standard: and expanded:​
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4 0
2 years ago
What two numbers are located 5/8 of a unit from 1/6 on a number line
velikii [3]
Step 1
Find the common denominator.
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step 2
multiply (5/8) by (3/3)  and (1/6) by (4/4)
5/8-----> 15/24
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step 3
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the answer is
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5 0
3 years ago
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

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Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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