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Lostsunrise [7]
1 year ago
6

Coordinate point A located at (9,4) was translated up 3 units and right 6 units, it is then dillated by a scale factor of 2 and

reflected across the x axis.Coordinate point A located at (9,4) was translated up 3 units and right 6 units, it is then dilated by a scale factor of 2 and reflected across the x axis.
Mathematics
1 answer:
tankabanditka [31]1 year ago
5 0

The image after the sequence of transformations is (30, -14)

<h3>What is the image of the point after the sequence of transformations?</h3>

We start with the point (9, 4), first we need to translate it up 3 units, then right 6 units, dilate it by a scale factor of 2, and finally reflect it across the x-axis.

Let's write all these transformations in a general way and then let's apply them.

For a general point (x, y)

A vertical translation up of 3 units gives: (x, y + 3)

A horizontal translation of 6 units to the right gives: (x + 6, y)

A dilation of scale factor 2 gives: (2x, 2y)

A reflection across the x-axis gives: (x, -y)

Then if we apply all that to our point (9, 4) we will get:

A vertical translation up of 3 units gives: (9, 4 + 3) = (9, 7)

A horizontal translation of 6 units to the right gives: (9 + 6, 7) = (15, 7)

A dilation of scale factor 2 gives: (2*15, 2*7) = (30, 14)

A reflection across the x-axis gives: (30, -14)

That is the image after the sequence of transformations.

Learn more about transformations by reading:

brainly.com/question/4289712

#SPJ1

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
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Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

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And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

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Note: Let us consider, we need to find the gradient of line L.

Given:

The given equation of a line is:

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The line L passes through the points with coordinates (- 3, 1) and (2, - 2).

To find:

The gradient of the given line and the gradient of line L.

Solution:

Slope intercept form of a line is:

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We have,

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On comparing (i) and (ii), we get

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The line L passes through the points with coordinates (- 3, 1) and (2, - 2). So, the gradient of line L is:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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