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svetoff [14.1K]
1 year ago
7

Students are measuring various objects around the classroom. A pencil measures 8 ⅜ inches while a pair of scissors measures 5 ½

inches. How much longer is the pencil than the pair of scissors?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Maslowich1 year ago
5 0

The pencil is longer than the pair of scissors by  2\frac{7}{8} inches.

A pencil measures  8\frac{3}{8}  inches.

A pair of scissors measures  5\frac{1}{2}  inches.

We need to find the difference between the measures of a pencil and the scissors.

We see that the pencil measure is greater than the pair of scissors.

<h3>What is a mix fraction?</h3>

A fraction is a part of a whole number. It has two parts - numerator and denominator.

Example: If you cut a cake into three slices each slice is 1/3.

Where 1 = numerator and 3 = denominator.

Four types of fractions:

Unit fraction - when the numerator is 1.

Proper fraction - When the numerator is less than the denominator.

Improper fraction - When the numerator is greater than the denominator.

Mixed fraction - When the fraction contains a whole number with a proper fraction.

Example:  3\frac{1}{3}

The given measure of the pen and the pair of scissors is in mix fraction.

The pencil measure is longer than the pair of scissors measure so,

We will subtract the measure of the pair of scissors from the measure of the pen.

We have,

       =  8\frac{3}{8} - 5\frac{1}{2}

We can write the mix fraction into an improper fraction.

We multiply the denominator with the whole number and add this product with the numerator to get our numerator of the improper fraction. The denominator will remain the same as the mix fraction in the improper fraction.

So,

8\frac{3}{8}=\frac{(8\times8)+3}{8}=\frac{64 + 3}{8} = \frac{67}{8}\\ 5\frac{1}{2} =\frac{(5\times2)+1}{2}= \frac{(10+1)}{2} = \frac{11}{2}

= 67/8 - 11/2

= (67-44) / 8

= 23 / 8

Writing in mix fraction.

=  2\frac{7}{8}

Thus the pencil is longer than the pair of scissors by  2\frac{7}{8} inches.

Learn more about mix fraction here:

brainly.com/question/13881046

#SPJ1

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Answer:

y                 0             1              2          3

P(Y=y)   0.0676   0.3549   0.3875   0.19

Step-by-step explanation:

P(Wed) = 0.26

P(Thurs) = 0.39

P(Fri) = 0.25

P(Sat) = 0.10

Y = No. of days beyond Wednesday it takes for both magazines to arrive i.e. 0,1,2,3

Y=0 means the magazines will arrive on Wednesday

Y=1 means the magazines will arrive till Thursday

Y=2 means the magazines will arrive till Friday

Y=3 means the magazines will arrive till Saturday

The possible combinations for Y are

Y(W,W) Y(W,T) Y(W,F) Y(W,S)

Y(T,W) Y(T,T) Y(T,F) Y(T,S)

Y(F,W) Y(F,T) Y(F,F) Y(F,S)

Y(S,W) Y(S,T) Y(S,F) Y(S,S)

So, we can classify these possible outcomes as Y=0,1,2,3.

Y(0) = Y(W,W) (both magazines take 0 days to arrive beyond Wednesday)

Y(1) = Y(W,T), Y(T,T), Y(T,W) (both magazines take 1 day to arrive beyond Wednesday)

Y(2) = Y(W,F), Y(T,F), Y(F,F) Y(F,W) Y(F,T) (both magazines arrive till Friday)

Y(3) = Y(W,S), Y(T,S), Y(F,S), Y(S,W), Y(S,T), Y(S,F), Y(S,S) (both magazines arrive till Saturday)

To calculate the PMF, we need to calculate the probability for each of the points in Y(0,1,2,3).

Y(0) = Y(W,W)

       = 0.26 x 0.26

Y(0) = 0.0676

Y(1) = Y(W,T) + Y(T,T) + Y(T,W)

      = (0.26 x 0.39) + (0.39 x 0.39) + (0.39 x 0.26)

      = 0.1014 + 0.1521 + 0.1014

Y(1) = 0.3549

Y(2) = Y(W,F) + Y(T,F) + Y(F,F) + Y(F,W) + Y(F,T)

  =(0.26 x 0.25) + (0.39 x 0.25) + (0.25 x 0.25) + (0.25 x 0.26) + (0.25 x 0.39)

  = 0.065 + 0.0975 + 0.0625 + 0.065 + 0.0975

Y(2) = 0.3875

Y(3) = Y(W,S) + Y(T,S) + Y(F,S) + Y(S,W) + Y(S,T) + Y(S,F) + Y(S,S)

      = (0.26 x 0.10) + (0.39 x 0.10) + (0.25 x 0.10) + (0.10 x 0.26) + (0.10 x 0.39) + (0.10 x 0.25) + (0.10 x 0.10)

       = 0.026 + 0.039 + 0.025 + 0.026 + 0.039 + 0.025 + 0.010

Y(3) = 0.19

y                 0             1              2          3

P(Y=y)   0.0676   0.3549   0.3875   0.19

The PMF plot is attached as a photo here.

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