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Dennis_Churaev [7]
1 year ago
13

Is a management program that seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the cause of defects an

d variations in various processes?
Business
1 answer:
Art [367]1 year ago
4 0

Quality management is a management program that seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the cause of defects and variations in various processes.

Management is the management of an organization, such as a corporation, non-profit organization, or government agency. This is the art and science of managing company resources.

Management is the dynamic process of getting things done by others with the goal of achieving a common goal effectively and efficiently. All functions, from planning to organization, personnel allocation, management, and generalization, are essential for the smooth execution of management in an organization.

Corporate governance is the coordination and organization of business activities. Business managers oversee operations and help employees achieve peak productivity.

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Question 12 Which answer illustrates "compound interest"?
Ber [7]

Answer:D

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
services act as a middleman, allowing individuals to securely send and receive money. select all that apply. a. p2p b. b2b c. b2
k0ka [10]

Services act as a middleman, allowing individuals to securely send and receive money is A. p2p

<h3>How to illustrate the information?</h3>

It should be noted that p2p simply means the peer to peer platform that allows two individuals to be able to interact directly without the third party.

Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending eliminates the need for a middleman financial institution by allowing borrowers to get loans directly from other borrowers. P2P lending has become much more popular as a substitute for traditional funding thanks to websites that make it possible.

It should be noted that they act as services that act as a middleman, allowing individuals to securely send and receive money.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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7 0
1 year ago
Two investment opportunities are as follows:________. Alt A Alt B First Cost 200 100 Uniform annual benefit 32 27 End of useful
Talja [164]

Answer:

Since the 4.34 NPV of Alt A is greater than the 2.35 NPV of Alt B, it therefore implies that Alt A should be selected.

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged together. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

                                                          Alt A              Alt B

First Cost                                           200                 100

Uniform annual benefit                       32                   27

End of useful life salvage value         20                    0

Useful life, in years                              10                     5

The explanation to the answer is now given as follows:

a. Calculation of NPV of Alt A

First Cost = 200

PV of uniform annual benefit = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) ……………………. (2)

Where;

P = uniform annual benefit = 32

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 10

Note: The formula for calculating the present value of ordinary annuity is being used here to calculate the Present Value (PV) of uniform annual benefit.

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV of uniform annual benefit = 32 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^10) / 0.10) = 32 * 6.14456710570468 = 196.63

PV of Salvage value = FV / (1 + r)^n ..................... (2)

Where;

FV = End of useful life salvage value = 20

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 10

Note: The normal formula for calculating the present value (PV) is being used here to calculate the PV of Salvage value

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PV of Salvage value = 20 / (1 + 0.10)^10 = 20 / 2.5937424601 = 7.71

Net present value (NPV) of Alt .A = PV of uniform annual benefit + PV of Salvage value - First cost = 196.63 + 7.71 - 200 = 4.34

b. Calculation of NPV of Alt B

First Cost = 100

PV of uniform annual benefit = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) ……………………. (3)

Where;

P = uniform annual benefit = 27

r = MACC = 10%, or 0.10

n = number of useful years = 5

Note: The formula for calculating the present value of ordinary annuity is also being used here to calculate the Present Value (PV) of uniform annual benefit.

Substitute the values into equation (3) to have:

PV of uniform annual benefit = 27 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^5) / 0.10) = 27 * 3.79078676940845 = 102.35

NPV of Alt B = PV of uniform annual benefit - First cost = 102.35 – 100 = 2.35

c. Decision

Since the 4.34 NPV of Alt A is greater than the 2.35 NPV of Alt B, it therefore implies that Alt A should be selected.

6 0
3 years ago
The process of planning and managing a firm’s long-term assets is called:______.
Leona [35]
C is the correct answer
4 0
3 years ago
Colgate-Palmolive Company has just paid an annual dividend of . Analysts are predicting dividends to grow by per year over the n
denis23 [38]

The amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today

<u>Given Information</u>

Current dividend (D0) = $1.59

   

Dividend payments for next five years includes:

D1 = 1.59 +0.18

D1 = 1.77

   

D2 = 1.77 +0.18

D2 = 1.95

D3 = 1.95 +0.18

D3 = 2.13

D4 = 2.13 +0.18

D4 =2.31

D5 = 2.31 +0.18

D5 =2.49

Year  Cash Flow         PVF at 8.1%        Present value

1            1.77                0.92506938        1.637372803    

2           1.95                0.855753358      1.668719048

3           2.13                0.791631229        1.686174517    

4           2.31                0.73231381           1.691644901    

5           2.49               0.677441082        <u>1.686828295</u>

Present value of Dividends                   <u>8.3707</u>

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = D5 x (1+g)/(Ke-g))      

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = 2.49(1+0.061)/(0.081-0.061)    

PV of remaining dividends in 5 year = $132.0945

Given that g=6.1%, ke=8.1%      

PV of remaining dividends in year = 0 = PV of the remaining dividends in year 5* 1/(1+0.081)^5

= 132.0945 * 1/(1+0.081)^5    

= $89.48624      

As per dividend-discount model, Colgate stock should sell for​ today = PV of Dividends till 5th year + PV of Remaining Dividend at t=0

= $89.48624 + $8.3707    

= $97.8531

= $97.85

Hence, the amount of $97.85 is the price that​ dividend-discount model predict that Colgate stock should sell for​ today.

Read more about dividend

<em>brainly.com/question/3161471</em>

8 0
2 years ago
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