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Brilliant_brown [7]
3 years ago
15

Seaside Developments Inc. has $200,000 of no par value 4% cumulative preferred shares, and 12,000 shares of no par value common

shares outstanding. In its first three years of operation, the company paid cash dividends as follows: Year 1: $8,000; Year 2: $18,000; and Year 3: $24,000. The amount of dividends received by the preferred shareholders in year 3 was:_______
a. $8,000
b. $12,000
c. $16,000
d. $20,000
Business
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: a. $18,000

Explanation:

Cumulative Preferred Shares are shares where the company will always pay Preferred dividends and in years they cannot, they accrue it till a time when they can.

In the above question the dividends due to Preferred Shares are,

= 4% * 200,000

= $8,000

In Year 1, $8,000 were declared as dividends.

= 8,000 - 8,000

= 0

This means that the company does not owe preferred dividends from Year 1.

In Year 2, $18,000 was declared as dividends,

= 18,000 - 8,000

= $8,000

This means that in Year 2, the company was able to pay off Preferred dividends and still have some left to pay off Common Shareholders.

In Year 3, $24,000 was declared as dividends.

= 24,000 - 8,000

= $16,000

In year 3 as well, tue company had enough to pay off it's Preferred Dividend obligations meaning that it paid off all of it.

In Year 3 therefore, Preferred Shareholders got the entire $8,000 that was due to them.

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Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

$2.07

Explanation:

the complete answer details is found in the attachment below

5 0
3 years ago
The Gorman Group issued $900,000 of 13% bonds on June 30, 2016, for $967,707. The bonds were dated on June 30 and mature on June
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

cash      967,707 debit

  premium on BP      67,707 credit

  Bnds Payable     900,000 credit

interest expense 58062.42  debit

premium on BP 437.58       debit

       cash                     58500 credit

Explanation:

procceds 967,707

face value 900,000

premium on bonds payable 67,707

<em><u>first interest payment</u></em>

carrying value x market rate

967,707 x 0.06 = 58062.42

then cash outlay

face valeu x bond rate

900,000 x 0.065 = 58,500

the difference will be the amortization

8 0
4 years ago
John receives a marginal benefit of $80 from one missile. Nick receives a marginal benefit of $50 from one missile. Christina re
swat32

Answer:

Economy's marginal social benefit=$65

Explanation:

The economy's marginal social benefit can be calculated by getting the average of the individual marginal benefit.

This can be expressed as;

Economy's marginal social benefit=Sum of individual marginal benefit/Total number of individual's

where;

Sum of individual marginal benefit=John's marginal benefit+Nick's marginal benefit+Christina's marginal benefit=(80+50+65)=$195

Total number of individuals=3

replacing;

Economy's marginal social benefit=195/3=65

Economy's marginal social benefit=$65

7 0
4 years ago
Question 3 The owner of a cemetery plans to offer a perpetual care service for grave sites. The owner estimates that it will cos
den301095 [7]

Answer:

$1,083

Explanation:

Given that,

Cost of providing perpetual care service for grave sites = $130 per year

Interest rate = 12 percent

Therefore, the one-time fee the owner should charge:

= Cost of providing perpetual care service for grave sites ÷ Interest rate

= $130 ÷ 0.12

= $1,083.33 or $1,083

Hence, the one-time fee should the owner charge for the perpetual care service is $1,083.

6 0
3 years ago
The Astro World amusement park has the opportunity to expand its size nowâ (the end of yearâ 0) by purchasing adjacent property
STatiana [176]

Answer:

Percent increase as a result of expansion = 30%

Price of admission = $35

Cashflow attributable to the park's expansion = Estimated attendance without expansion * percent increase as a result of expansion * admission fee - additional operating costs per year.

Year 1

= 31,000 * 30% * 35 - 100,000

= $225,500

Year 2

= 35,000 * 30% * 35 - 100,000

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Year 3

= 36,750 * 30% * 40 - 100,000

= $341,000

Year 4

= 38,500 * 30% * 40 - 100,000

= $362,000

Year 5

= 42,000 * 30% * 40 - 100,000

= $404,000

6 0
3 years ago
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