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4 years ago

Overapplied manufacturing overhead would result if:

1 answer:

4 0

<span> Manufacturing overhead describes the difference between manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process and manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period.</span>
Over-applied manufacturing overhead would result if the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is more than the manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period. So, in over-applied overhead the applied overhead is bigger than the actual overhead.

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Negative feedback received during the final evaluation of the decision indicates:______A. the decision was a bad one. B. impleme

kumpel [21]

Answer:

E) Any of the above may be possible.

Explanation:

Negative feedback means any of following reasons are possible:

1. The decision was a bad one (most probably)

2. More information and new suggestions should be incorporated since the more input better will be the output

3. More time, resources, effort and thought are needed

4. Manager may have to re-start the decision process from beginning

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3 years ago

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4 years ago

A new furnace for your small factory will cost $45,000 and a year to install, will require ongoing maintenance expenditures of $

Anna35 [415]

Answer:

a) NPV = $43,874.65

b) IRR = 24.37%

c) payback period = 5.33 years

d) equivalent annual cost = $6,024.55

e) equivalent annual savings = $13,298.61

f) since the NPV is positive, the equivalent annual savings must be higher than the equivalent annual costs

Explanation:

initial outlay year 0 = -$45,000

net savings year 1 = -$1,400 + (4,200 x $2) = $7,000

net savings year 2 = -$1,400 + (4,200 x $2.50) = $9,100

net savings year 3 = -$1,400 + (4,200 x $3) = $11,200

net savings years 4 - 20 = -$1,400 + (4,200 x $3.50) = $13,300

discount rate = 12%

using a financial calculator:

NPV = $43,874.65

IRR = 24.37%

payback period = 5.33 years

equivalent annual cost = (present value of costs x 12%) / / [1 - (1 + 12%)⁻ⁿ] =[($45,000 + $10,457.22) x 12%] / [1 - (1 + 12%)⁻ⁿ] = $6,654.87 / 0.89633 = $7,424.57

equivalent annual savings = (present value of savings x 12%) / / [1 - (1 + 12%)⁻ⁿ] = ($99,332.87 x 12%) / / [1 - (1 + 12%)⁻ⁿ] = $11,919.94 / 0.89633 = $13,298.61

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4 years ago

Debeers sells most of the diamonds it produces to industry. the company controls over 90 percent of the market and has great pow

Leokris [45]

DeBeers is called a channel leader. There is the strength, determination, knowledge, and management to control the industry. He/She has a talent and strategy on distributing and delivery of the business through networks. He/She knows that market very well enough to control the 90% as said.

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4 years ago

A post-closing trial balance should be prepared

yanalaym [24]

Answer:

<h2>Post-Closing trial balance is usually prepared after the closing entries are posted to the ledger account.Hence,the correct answer is the third option or after closing entries are posted to the ledger accounts.</h2>

Explanation:

In Accounting,the main objective of preparing a post-closing trial balance is to ensure the completion and closure of all the temporary accounts and the equality between all the debit and credit entries have been consistently established once the closing entry has been done.Once the closing entries have been put into journal and finally posted in ledger,a detailed account or list of all the individual accounts along with their respective balances is prepared which is basically known as Post Closing Trial Balance Account.It includes all the unbalanced accounts from the original trial balance or the accounts which are not balanced based on debt and credit entries,at the end of the accounting or reporting year.Therefore,post-trial balance basically ensures that all the accounts entered in the original trial balance are zero balance or the debit and credit entries of all the individual accounts in trial balance are balanced or equal.

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4 years ago