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Thepotemich [5.8K]
2 years ago
8

If the fixed costs for a product decrease and the variable costs (as a percentage of sales dollars) decrease, what will be the e

ffect on the contribution margin ratio and the breakeven point respectively? Contribution Breakeven Margin Ratio Point A decreased increased B increased decreased C decreased decreased D increased increased
Business
1 answer:
il63 [147K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Contribution margin ratio is the difference between the selling price of the product and the variable cost of the product.

Contribution margin ratio = Selling price - Variable cost

Now, if there is a decrease in the fixed costs and variable costs of the product then as a result contribution margin ratio increases because of the fall in variable cost.

Break even point = (Fixed expense ÷ Contribution margin ratio)

If there is an increase in the contribution margin ration and a reduction in the fixed expense then as a result break even point decreases.

Increased; Decreased

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3 years ago
What is the difference between training and development?...
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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the economy's production function is ???? = ????K 0.3???? 0.7 . If K = 2000, N = 100, and A = 1, then Y = 246. If K and
densk [106]

Answer:

Y=38.8

Y will increase by 38.8

Y=246+38.8

Y=284.8

Explanation:

Y=A. F(K, L)

Y=A. K^0.3, L^0.7

Then

Y=246

A=1

K=2000

N or L=100

Solutions

200=1(2000^0.3, 100^0.7)

Now the question says both k & N are increased by 0.20

Therefore

Y=1(2400^0.3, 120^0.7)

Y=1(10.3 + 28.5)

Y=38.8

4 0
2 years ago
Assuming suppliers produce 75 lawnmowers per week:
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:C

Explanation: this quantity is allocatively inefficient because the marginal cost of producing the last lawnmower exceeds the marginal benefit to consumers.

6 0
3 years ago
You have been hired by the CFO of Lugones Industries to help estimate its cost of common equity. You have obtained the following
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

Under CAPM:

Re = Rf + Beta(Rm - Rf)

Rf = 5%

Rm - Rf = 6%

Beta = 1.25

Re = 5% + (1.25 x 6%) = 12.5%

Under dividend discount model:

Re = (Div₁ / P₀) + g

Div₁ = $1.20

P₀ = $35

g = 8%

Re = ($1.20 / $35) + 8% = 11.43%

Under bond yield plus risk premium approach:

Re = Pre-tax cost of debt + risk premium over its own debt

Pre-tax cost of debt = 7%

risk premium over its own debt = 4%

Re = 7% + 4% = 11%

The highest cost of equity results from the CAPM model and it is 12.5% while the lowest results from using the bond yield plus risk approach (11%), the difference is 1.5% between them.

7 0
3 years ago
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