Answer:
$4,908,000
Explanation:
The computation of accumulated depreciation expense for this purchase is shown below:-
Depreciation expense = ((Cost of machine - Salvage) ÷ Estimated useful life of machine)
= (($40,900,000 - $4,090,000) ÷ 15) × 2
= $36,810,000 ÷ 15 × 2
= $4,908,000
Therefore for computing the depreciation expense we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
The variable factory overhead controllable variance is $2,250 favorable.
Explanation:
variable factory overhead controllable variance
= standard variable cost - actual variable cost
= $5500-2.5*3 - $39000
= $2,250 favorable
Therefore, The variable factory overhead controllable variance is $2,250 favorable.
The premium would be 5%
If a portfolio had a return of 11 the risk-free asset return was 6, and the standard deviation of the portfolios excess returns was 25 the premium would be 5%
Portfolio return = 11%
Risk free rate = 6%
Risk premium = Portfolio return - Risk free rate
= 11% - 6% =5%
So, the premium would be 5%
Premium is an amount paid periodically to the insurer by means of the insured for overlaying his chance.
Learn more about premium here- https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/premium
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Answer:
The amount of total assets at the end of the year is $15,600
Explanation:
The computation of the total assets is shown below:
= Borrowed amount + issued stock to owners + purchase of supplies - paid to supplies
= $5,000 + $10,000 + $1,000 - $400
= $15,600
We considered all the items which are given in the question. The payment made to supplies should be deducted as it reduced the balance of cash So, the remaining items would be added
Answer:
Risk Breakdown Structure
Explanation:
According to my research on the different techniques or structures used within organizations, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the term being used is called Risk Breakdown Structure. This structure is a pyramid structure which organizes different project risks and arranges them by category.
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