It is reported as foot notes in cashflow statement or in the notes of financial statements.
When an income statement is converted to cash flows from operational operations, noncash items like as depreciation and nonoperating profits and losses are not included. Non-cash investing and financing entails making an investment or purchase using financial instruments other than cash.
The Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) are a collection of generally observed financial reporting accounting standards and regulations. The four main constraints of GAAP are objectivity, the materiality, the consistency, and the prudence.
Companies are required by both IFRS and US GAAP to declare any substantial non-cash investment and financing operations, either as a footnote at the bottom of the statement of the cash flows or in notes to the financial statements.
Therefore, the answer is the bottom of the statement of the cash flows or in the notes to financial statements.
To know more about U.S Gaap click here:
brainly.com/question/17327177
#SPJ4
Answer: The answer is A. Reflects product differentiation.
Explanation:
In a monopolistic competition, companies offer products that are not equal. This product differentiation gives companies power in the market and causes each company to face a demand curve with a downward slope (if it raises the price of its product it will sell less and if it lowers it will sell more). Unlike a perfect competition market where companies face a horizontal demand curve.
Answer:
The correct answer is that Mark's opportunity cost of holding cash is higher
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is nothing but the value of the next best alternative that a person has given up , when that person had the choice of selecting between any number of options. You will not find this cost to be shown in your financial statements or balance sheets but this cost is very important in telling which option is the best to use or more profitable for a person or company.
In this question the reason why Mark uses ATM more frequently is because for him the opportunity cost for him in holding more money in hand is high as compared to the Jim whose opportunity cost of holding more money in hand is less , which means he is not not going to miss out on much of the opportunity. The reason why the opportunity cost is high for Mark is because of high rate of interest in his country , if Mark holds more money in hand then the amount of money he is going to lose on interest that he would have gained by keeping the money in bank will be high which means his opportunity cost of holding money is high.
Answer:
Explanation:
a. Dr Cash 5,376,150
Cr Premium on bonds payable 376,150
Cr Bonds payable 5,000,000
b. Dr Interest expense 322,569
Dr premium on bonds payable 2431
Cr Cash 325,000
c. Dr Interest expense 322,423
Dr Premium on bonds payable 2577
Cr Cash 325,000
d. Dr Interest expense 322,269
Dr premium on bonds payable 2731
Cr Cash 325,000
