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satela [25.4K]
3 years ago
10

Is the gcf of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? Explain with an example

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sonja [21]3 years ago
6 0
Yes, an example includes 1 and any number that exists.
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2x-1/6 = 2(x-3)/3 + 1?
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2x-\frac{1}{6}=\frac{2(x-3)}{3}+1\ \ \ \ |multiply\ both\ sides\ by\ 6\\\\6(2x)-6(\frac{1}{6})=6\left(\frac{2x-6}{3}\right)+6(1)\\\\12x-1=2(2x-6)+6\\\\12x-1=2(2x)+2(-6)+6\\\\12x-1=4x-12+6\\\\12x-1=4x-6\ \ \ \ |add\ 1\ to\ both\ sides\\\\12x=4x-5\ \ \ \ \ |subtract\ 4x\ from\ both\ sides\\\\8x=-5\ \ \ \ |divide\ both\ sides\ by\ 8\\\\\boxed{\boxed{x=-\frac{5}{8}}}
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Eight more than the product of some number cubed and two
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Angle 5 = 117° because it is vertical to angle 8
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