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valentina_108 [34]
3 years ago
12

Is 3/4 and 3/8 equivalent fractions and why? Thanks

Mathematics
2 answers:
lutik1710 [3]3 years ago
6 0
No, because the numerators are the same and the denominators are not
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
4 0
No, they are not equivalent. The numerators are equals, but the denominators are not, they are not equivalent. If the first one would be 6/8, they would be equivalent, because we can simplify the fractions by 2 and we got 3/4 again. Good luck !
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3 years ago
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GaryK [48]

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