Is 3/4 and 3/8 equivalent fractions and why? Thanks

Mathematics

2 answers:

lutik1710 [3]3 years ago

6 0

No, because the numerators are the same and the denominators are not

uranmaximum [27]3 years ago

4 0

No, they are not equivalent. The numerators are equals, but the denominators are not, they are not equivalent. If the first one would be 6/8, they would be equivalent, because we can simplify the fractions by 2 and we got 3/4 again. Good luck !

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