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valentina_108
[34]
3 years ago
12
Is 3/4 and 3/8 equivalent fractions and why? Thanks
Mathematics
Answer
Comment
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2
answers:
lutik1710
[3]
3 years ago
6
0
No, because the numerators are the same and the denominators are not
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uranmaximum
[27]
3 years ago
4
0
No, they are not equivalent. The numerators are equals, but the denominators are not, they are not equivalent. If the first one would be 6/8, they would be equivalent, because we can simplify the fractions by 2 and we got 3/4 again. Good luck !
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