All categories

3 years ago

In the diagram circle o, what is the measure of angle abc

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alecsey [184]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

34°

Step-by-step explanation:

Because AB and CB are tangents, the measure of angle B is the supplement of the measure of arc AC:

180° -146° = 34°

You might be interested in

there are 36 capenters in a crew. Ona certain day,29 were present .What percent showed up for work?[round to the nearest tenth

aliina [53]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We assume, that the number 36 is 100% - because it's the output value of the task.

2. We assume, that x is the value we are looking for.

3. If 100% equals 36, so we can write it down as 100%=36.

4. We know, that x% equals 29 of the output value, so we can write it down as x%=29.

5. Now we have two simple equations:

1) 100%=36

2) x%=29

where left sides of both of them have the same units, and both right sides have the same units, so we can do something like that:

100%/x%=36/29

6. Now we just have to solve the simple equation, and we will get the solution we are looking for.

7. Solution for 29 is what percent of 36

100%/x%=36/29

(100/x)*x=(36/29)*x - we multiply both sides of the equation by x

100=1.24137931034*x - we divide both sides of the equation by (1.24137931034) to get x

100/1.24137931034=x

80.5555555556=x

x=80.5555555556

now we have:

29 is 80.5555555556% of 36 to the nearest tenth is 81%

4 0

3 years ago

15 increased by a number x

aleksandrvk [35]

15 increased by a number x: 15 + x
a number x more than −14: x > -14
t<span>he difference of 7 and a number x: </span>7/x

3 0

4 years ago

The equation y = 8x + 12, where x is the number of hours and y is the total cost, represents what the surf instructor charges fo

Lelu [443]

We know from the slope intercept form that y=mx+b so the y intercept is 12 while every hour the cost goes up by 8

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help! If you know this can you tell me how to do it?

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's how this works:

Get everything together into one fraction by finding the LCD and doing the math. The LCD is sin(x) cos(x). Multiplying that in to each term looks like this:

$[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}+[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)} =?$

In the first term, the cos(x)'s cancel out, and in the second term the sin(x)'s cancel out, leaving:

$\frac{sin^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}+\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?$

Put everything over the common denominator now:

$\frac{sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?$

Since $sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1$ , we will make that substitution:

$\frac{1}{sin(x)cos(x)}$

We could separate that fraction into 2:

$\frac{1}{sin(x)}$ × $\frac{1}{cos(x)}$

$\frac{1}{sin(x)}=csc(x)$ and $\frac{1}{cos(x)}=sec(x)$

Therefore, the simplification is

sec(x)csc(x)

5 0

3 years ago

49v2 + 42v<br> 56v3<br> Simplify rational expression

Alchen [17]

Answer:

Simplify each term.

49 v ^2 + 2352 v ^4

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago