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3 years ago

Which equation shows the same relationship as 42 = 7 / 1/6

Mathematics

1 answer:

vodka [1.7K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

42 × 1/6 = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

42 multiplied by 1/6 equals 7 since 42 divided by 6 equals 7. This equation is another way to show.

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PLZZ HELP URGENT

Mashcka [7]

Answer:

5x + 2x.....combine like terms..... = 7x

5x + 2x....subbing in 1 7x - 1....subbing in 1

5(1) + 2(1) = 5 + 2 = 7 7(1) - 1 = 7 - 1 = 6

5x + 2x...subbing in 2 7x - 1...subbing in 2

5(2) + 2(2) = 10 + 4 = 14 7(2) - 1 = 14 - 1 = 13

5x + 2x...subbing in 3 7x - 1...subbing in 3

5(3) + 2(3) = 15 + 6 = 21 7(3) - 1 = 21 - 1 = 20

5x + 2x...subbing in 4 7x - 1....subbing in 4

5(4) + 2(4) = 20 + 8 = 28 7(4) - 1 = 28 - 1 = 27

5x + 2x...subbing in 5 7x - 1...subbing in 5

5(5) + 2(5) = 25 + 10 = 35 7(5) - 1 = 35 - 1 = 34

5x + 2x result values are 1 more then 7x - 1 result values

there are no values that will make the 2 expressions equal....

because 5x + 2x = 7x......and the other one is 7x - 1......so the 7x - 1 values will always be 1 number less...because ur subtracting one

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The number of failures of a testing instrument from contamination particles on the product is a Poisson random variable with a m

photoshop1234 [79]

Answer: 0.1353

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : The mean of failures = 0.025 per hour.

Then for 8 hours , the mean of failures = $\lambda=8\times0.25=2$ per eight hours.

Let X be the number of failures.

The formula to calculate the Poisson distribution is given by :_

$P(X=x)=\dfrac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^x}{x!}$

Now, the probability that the instrument does not fail in an 8-hour shift :-

$P(X=0)=\dfrac{e^{-2}2^0}{0!}=0.1353352\approx0.1353$

Hence, the the probability that the instrument does not fail in an 8-hour shift = 0.1353

7 0

3 years ago

I can define continuous data as:

stira [4]

Answer:

Continuous data are data which can take any values. Examples include time, height and weight. Because continuous data can take any value, there are an infinite number of possible outcomes.

5 0

3 years ago

ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST AND THANKS HELP

Elanso [62]

Answer:

iIm sorry dont report but i do not understand what im answering, but ill take the points thank you

7 0

3 years ago

Suppose that A is nonsingular. Prove that its inverse A-1 is unique. [Hint: Show that if there exists two matrices, B and C, suc

Bogdan [553]

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

Let A is non-singular

$\mid A\mid\neq 0$

We have to prove that $A^{-1}$ is unique.

Suppose B and C are inverse of A such that

$BA=I$ and AC=I

By using property $AA^{-1}=A^{-1}A=I$

$C=C$

$(BA)C=B(AC)$

$I\cdot C=B\cdot I$

$C=B$

Hence, the inverse of A is unique.

4 0

3 years ago