Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation: always remember that sign as irrational
Answer:
I believe this would be B
Step-by-step explanation:
The way I do improper fractions is called the 'boot'
It is where you take the whole number and the denominator and circle both of them so it kind of looks like a boot and you multiply those together.
So 5 * 8= 40 then you add your numerator to that which gets you 45, and you keep the denominator the same
So you end up with 45/8
Sorry if its a little confusing
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
a)
b) ![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
c)
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
2) Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Part a
Part b
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%5D)
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
Part c
Answer:
-3.5
Step-by-step explanation:
-8p + 14 = 42
-8p = 28 substract 14 from both sides
p = -3.5 divide both sides by -8