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IgorC [24]
3 years ago
6

ANSWER THE QUESTION IN THE PICTURE?(I selected a random answer)

Mathematics
2 answers:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
7 0
Well, since both lines intersect the y-axis at y = 2, both inequalities for the lines must end with a + 2, or b = 2. Since C is the only answer that fulfills this requirement, the answer is C.

Hope this helps!
DochEvi [55]3 years ago
7 0
The answer is the third choice down.  You have to figure out the equations for each of the lines and then decide what the sign is. Both lines are solid so there is a line under each one.
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Please Help, this is math problems
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

1/8 for the first one then 1/6 for the second one

Step-by-step explanation:

 

5 0
3 years ago
su ling started an art project with 1 yard of felt. she used to 2/6 yards on Tuesday and 3/6 yards on Wednesday. how much felt d
Natasha_Volkova [10]
1/6 yards. All you have to do is add the two upper numbers (numerator) ans then subtract 6/6 - 5/6
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4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Still helping my lil sister <br> Answer all three
wel

Answer:

3. D

4. C

5. I don't know sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
For a binomial process, the probability of success is 40 percent and the number of trials is 5. Find the standard deviation.
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

Sd(X) =\sqrt{1.2}=1.095

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.4)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

The mean for the binomial distribution is given by:

E(X) =np=5*0.4=2

And the variance is given by:

Var(X) = np(1-p) =5*0.4*(1-0.4)=1.2

And the deviation is just the square root of the variance so we got:

Sd(X) =\sqrt{1.2}=1.095

7 0
3 years ago
You might need: Calculator
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

117 pages

Step-by-step explanation:

114 + 3 = x

x = 117

5 0
3 years ago
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