1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Irina-Kira [14]
3 years ago
8

We have two coins, A and B. For each toss of coin A, we obtain Heads with probability 1/2 ; for each toss of coin B, we obtain H

eads with probability 1/3 . All tosses of the same coin are independent. We toss coin A until Heads is obtained for the first time. We then toss coin B until Heads is obtained for the first time with coin B. The expected value of the total number of tosses is:
Mathematics
1 answer:
ycow [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The expected value is 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

  • Let X represent the number of tosses until the event described in the question happens.
  • Let Y represent the number of tosses with coin A until Heads is obtained.
  • Let Z represent the number of tosses with coin B until Heads is obtained.

As we can see, X=Y+Z. Then, by the linearity of the expected value operator, we have that

E(X)=E(Y)+E(Z).

  • We will compute E(Y) and E(Z).

Observe that Y and Z have countable sets of outcomes (1,2,3,....) then,

E(X)=\sum^\infty_{n=1}nP(Y=n),

E(Z)=\sum^\infty_{n=1}nP(Z=n),

Then:

  • for each n\in \mathbb{N}, the probability of Y=n is given by (0.5)^{n-1}(0.5)=(0.5)^{n} (because the first n-1 tosses must be Tails and the n-th must be Heads). Therefore

E(Y)=\sum^\infty_{n=1}nP(Y=n)=\sum^\infty_{n=1}n(\frac{1}{2} )^n=\\\\\sum^\infty_{m=1}\sum^\infty_{n=m}(\frac{1}{2} )^n=\sum^\infty_{m=1}(\frac{1}{2} )^{m-1}=\sum^\infty_{m=0}(\frac{1}{2} )^{m}=2.

  • For each n\in \mathbb{N}, the probability of Z=n is given by (\frac {2}{3})^{n-1}(\frac {1}{3}) (because the first n-1 tosses must be Tails and the n-th must be Heads). Therefore

E(Z)=\sum^\infty_{n=1}nP(Z=n)=\frac{1}{3}\sum^\infty_{n=1}n(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}=\frac{1}{3}\sum^\infty_{m=1}\sum^\infty_{n=m}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}

Observe that, by the <u>geometric series formula</u>:

\sum^\infty_{n=m}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}=\sum^\infty_{n=1}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}-\sum^{m-1}_{n=1}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}=3-\sum^{m-1}_{n=1}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}=\\\\3-\sum^{m-2}_{n=0}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n}=3-\frac{1-(\frac{2}{3})^{m-1} }{1-\frac{2}{3}}=3(\frac{2}{3})^{m-1}

Therefore

E(Z)=\frac{1}{3}\sum^\infty_{m=1}\sum^\infty_{n=m}(\frac{2}{3} )^{n-1}=\frac{1}{3}\sum^\infty_{m=1}3(\frac{2}{3})^{m-1} =\\\\ \sum^\infty_{m=1}(\frac{2}{3})^{m-1} = \sum^\infty_{m=0}(\frac{2}{3})^{m} =3.

Finally, E(X)=E(Y)+E(Z)=2+3=5.

You might be interested in
Which line is parallel to the line that passes through the points (1,7) and (-3, 4)? A.y=-3/4x-5 B.y=3/4x+1 C.y=4/3x-8 D. y=11/4
mixer [17]

Answer:

The Line p

y= 3/4x+ 6.25

Step-by-step explanation:

The points given changed 4 right and 3 up, giving a slope of .75

plug this slope into (1,7) to get the y-intercept.  This shows the intercept at 6.25.

7 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me with these pages
Brut [27]

Answer:

blkhyhgluuhvpugpugiiuibiub

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Factor out the GCF from the given polynomial. 38x-8
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

2(19x - 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The GCF of 38 and 8 is 2 :

Now we take a common factor of 2 :

2(19x - 1)

Hope this helped and have a good day

7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Sales variances may be computed in a manner similar to cost variances–that is, computing both price and volume variances.
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

The answer is True.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if

A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then

Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,

This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if

A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then

Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)

This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.

This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.

6 0
3 years ago
Can three segments with lengths 18, 35, 16 make a triangle?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

no since 18+16=34<35 it must be greater than 35

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • -
    9·2 answers
  • 3y+2=5(y-6) please help :)
    7·2 answers
  • A 20 ft ladder reaches a window 18 ft high. How far is the foot of the ladder from the base of the building?
    11·1 answer
  • Find the area 3/4 circle with the radius of 4.<br> THXXXXX
    9·1 answer
  • 7. John worked 32 hours last week and 28 hours this week. If he gets paid
    6·1 answer
  • Will give first person to answer brainliest!! At a local baseball game, tickets cost $4 for adults and $2 for students. If there
    10·1 answer
  • A blueberry muffin is on sale for 5% off. It's sale price is $1.90. What was the original price?
    11·2 answers
  • If DF = 9x - 39, find Ef
    8·1 answer
  • Solve for x. 2 = x + 9​
    9·2 answers
  • What is the product of -13/8 and 24/5
    10·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!