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Zina [86]
3 years ago
9

Louise owned a house next to Robert's house. Robert made a contract with Midcity Painters to paint his house. The painters arriv

ed to paint Robert's house, but mistakenly painted Louise's house. She saw the painters at work and made no comment. Later, Midcity Painters sent Louise a bill for painting her house. She claimed that she was not liable because she had not made any contract with them. Is this a valid defense?
Business
1 answer:
Aloiza [94]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Louise's defense is not valid. She was involved in an Implied-in-fact contracts

Explanation:

Implied-in-fact Contracts

This is a contract that is legally enforceable as a result of an agreement made by conduct and from assumed intentions. These conducts and assumed intentions are derived from the relationship among the involved parties.

When Louise saw Midcity Painters painting her house and made no comments, she became involved a implied-in-fact contract. The conduct of Midcity to paint her house and her conduct to be quiet infact formed a legally enforceable contract.

Louise, therefore, liable. However, due to the lack of contractual terms such as payment for the job done, Louise will be liable for the nominally or typically acceptable rate for such a job done. For instance, if a normal house paint job costs $2000, Louise is liable to pay $2000 for the implied contract.

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A reason for government involvement in a market economy is:
larisa [96]

Answer:

d. All of these answers are correct.

Explanation:

A market economy is where production decisions are made by the forces of demand and supply. Means of production are privately owned .

The government intervenes in a market economy for all the above stated reasons.

I hope my answer helps you.

5 0
2 years ago
Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

Allocated MOH= $165,240

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated manufacturing overhead $157,750

Estimated machine-hours 4,640

Actual manufacturing overhead $157,400

Actual machine-hours 4,860

First, we need to calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 157,750/4,640= $34 per machine hour

Now, we can calculate the allocated overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 34*4,860= $165,240

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are given an investment to analyze. the cash flows from this investment are end of year 1. $19,340 2. $2,280 3. $26,600 4. $
AleksandrR [38]
PW = FW×(1+i)^-n

PW = $19340×1.15^-1 + $2280×1.15^-2 + $26600×1.15^-3 + $24240×1.15^-4 + $8770×1.15^-5 = $54250.90

hence PW = $54250.90
6 0
3 years ago
What can a person do to help increase their credit score?
goblinko [34]
Answer peoples questions and do the challenges
7 0
3 years ago
Mantle Company has been in business several years. At the end of the current year; the unadjusted trial balance shows:
maksim [4K]

Answer:

  • a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

Explanation:

December 31  

Cr Sales Revenue $ 2.200.000

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 310.000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 5.700

 

a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

 

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT.  

Because the company already has a CREDIT balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts it's necessary to register an entry that complement the existing value and reflect the value as % of account receivable.  

 

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.  

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."  

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets  

 

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.  

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)  

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.  

8 0
3 years ago
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