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aalyn [17]
3 years ago
15

Which of these is a reason why outsourcing continues to expand?

Business
2 answers:
Vsevolod [243]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the correct answer is (D) more expensive transportation

good luck

SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": rapid development and deployment of advancements in automation.

Explanation:

Outsourcing is a business approach in which companies take their activities to different countries, rather than increasing their scale in the area where their headquarters are trying to reduce costs or meet regulations. This activity affects workers in the original country but is primarily a benefit to the countries in which companies start new operations.

<em>Advances in software deployment, telecommunications and computers have improved outsourcing as it allows for the decentralization of information regardless of where organizations are involved and needs fewer qualified staff because most of the operations are conducted with the use of computers rather than employee expertise.</em>

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Robots
inysia [295]

Based on the PPC given, the points given would represent the following:

  • Point B = Efficient use of resources.
  • Point X = Impossible use of resources.
  • Point A = Underutilized resources.

<h3>What do points on the PPC represent/</h3>

Points on the curve represent the efficient usage of resources because they show that all available resources are being used. Points B, C, and D are therefore all efficient.

Point X is impossible because all points outside of the PPC are not attainable due to a lack of resources. Point A shows that the available resources are not being fully utilized.

Options to describe the points:

  • Efficient use of resources
  • Under utilized resources
  • Economic growth
  • Trade-off
  • Opportunity cost

Find out more on the PPC at brainly.com/question/2617319.

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
The designated market value:a. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value le
eduard

Answer:

a. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value less a normal profit margin.

Explanation:

As we know that inventory will be recorded at cost or market value whichever is lower. But in the given case, the replacement cost would be recorded at higher values and lesser values. Higher values represent the Net realizable value whereas the lesser values represent the net realizable value less than the normal profit margin.

And if the replacement cost lies in this range than it represents the designated market value.  

Hence, option a is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
a new hockey arena at a cost of $2,500,000. It received a downpayment of $500,000 from local businesses to support the project a
mylen [45]

Answer:

a. Prepare the journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds on January 1, 2018

we must first determine the market price of the bonds:

PV of face value = $2,000,000 / (1 + 5%)²⁰ = $753,778.97 ≈ $753,779

PV of coupon payments = $110,000 x 12.462 (PV annuity factor, 5%, 20 periods) = $1,370,820

market value of the bonds = $753,779 + $1,370,820 = $2,124,599

January 1, 2018, bonds are issued at a premium

Dr Cash 2,124,599

    Cr Bonds payable 2,000,000

    Cr Premium on bonds payable 124,599

b. Prepare a bond amortization schedule up to and including January 1, 2022

since we are not told which amortization method to use, I will use the straight line method.

Date           Interest        Cash              Premium          Carrying

                  expense      paid               amortization     value

7/2018        $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,118,369

1/2019         $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,112,139

7/2019        $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,105,909  

1/2020        $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,099,679    

7/2020       $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,093,449

1/2021         $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,087,219  

7/2021        $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,080,989                              

1/2022        $103,770     $110,000       $6,230             $2,074,759                                

c. Prepare the journal entries to record the interest payments on January 1, 2020 and January 1, 2021.

bond premium amortization per coupon = 124,599 / 20 = $6,229.95 ≈ $6,230

January 1, 2020, coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 103,770

Dr Premium on bonds payable 6,230

    Cr Cash 110,000

January 1, 2021, coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 103,770

Dr Premium on bonds payable 6,230

    Cr Cash 110,000

d. Prepare the journal entry to record the bond called on January 2021 at 106

Dr Bonds payable 2,000,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable 87,219

Dr Loss on retirement of debt 32,781

    Cr Cash 2,120,000

5 0
3 years ago
A book on how to invest in collectibles spends several weeks on best seller lists. The paperback book was originally released fo
miskamm [114]

Answer:

inelastic demand

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand (PED) measures the proportional change in quantity demanded when the price of a product or service changes:

  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in a smaller proportion, the PED is said to be inelastic.
  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in a larger proportion, the PED is said to be elastic.
  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in the same proportion, the PED is said to be unit elastic.

In this case, the decrease in price (-2%) barely increased the quantity demanded, therefore, the PED is inelastic.

4 0
3 years ago
Hilton's 2001 segment reporting note showed that Hotel Ownership has revenue of $1,886 million, operating income of $474 million
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

Option A is correct one.

<u>Managing & Franchising s asset turnover ratio at 17.6% suggests inefficiency when compared to Hotel Ownership</u>

Explanation:

The ratio of the operating return on sales for hotel ownership is:

474/1886 = 0.25

The asset turn-over for hotel ownership is :

1886/492.5 = 0.38 = 38%

Now, for managing and franchising :

The ratios are:

Operating return to sales = 113/ 120 = 0.94

Asset Turnover = 120/680 = 0.1765 = 17.65%.

6 0
3 years ago
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