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timurjin [86]
3 years ago
13

The smaller the required reserve ratio the larger the simple deposit multiplier. Do you agree or disagree with this statement. E

xplain your answer.
Business
1 answer:
TiliK225 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Agree

Explanation:

A deposit multiplier is maximum amount of money that can be created for each unit of reserve. It is key requirement for maintaining economy's basic money supply. The simple deposit multiplier is 1 / rr * change in R. Deposit multiplier is the inverse of reserve ratio. The higher the reserve ratio the lesser will be the deposit multiplier. Reserve ratio is the minimum amount of money that must be kept in the deposit.

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Monetarists believe that changes in the supply of money Question 24 options: do not affect aggregate demand. affect aggregate de
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Answer: affect aggregate demand directly.

Explanation:

Monetarists believe that money supply is very important in determining the economic growth of an economy and this is why they advocate for monetary authorities to get involved in the monetary system in order to guide the growth of the economy.

To monetarists, the supply of money influences consumption as well as investment and so directly affects aggregate demand because both consumption and investment are components of aggregate demand. For instance, an increase in money supply increases both consumption and investment and so increases aggregate demand.

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3 years ago
Which PCI security requirement relates to the physical protection of banks’ customer data?
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The answer is <u>"D. Network vulnerability management".</u>


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3 years ago
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What are examples of short-term goals? Check all that apply.
Zolol [24]

Answer:

the right answer is Aden wants to get a summer job during his school vacation.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

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Well 50% of 50,000 is 25,000 so I’d say make sure your cars don’t go above 15,000 a Year cause Car(s)
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