I can help if you want me to
Answer:
we need to prove : for every integer n>1, the number
is a multiple of 5.
1) check divisibility for n=1,
(divisible)
2) Assume that
is divisible by 5, 
3) Induction,



Now, 



Take out the common factor,
(divisible by 5)
add both the sides by f(k)

We have proved that difference between
and
is divisible by 5.
so, our assumption in step 2 is correct.
Since
is divisible by 5, then
must be divisible by 5 since we are taking the sum of 2 terms that are divisible by 5.
Therefore, for every integer n>1, the number
is a multiple of 5.
Essentially, 50% of $10.56 is $5.28.
This means that all we have to do is add $10.56 to $5.28, making <u>$15.84</u>
Side note: Another way that you can do this is by simply doing 1.5(10.56).
Answer:
the answer is 18
Step-by-step explanation:
I believe the answer is A. 20, 30, 40 is NOT a pythagorean triple.