1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
julia-pushkina [17]
3 years ago
7

In a few words, identify the key differences between Aristotle's definitions of tragedy and comedy

History
1 answer:
bazaltina [42]3 years ago
7 0

According to Aristotle, both tragedy and epic are forms of imitation. Tragedy imitates directly by means of mimesis and epic both directly and indirectly by means of mimesis and diegesis. While epic imitates solely by means of words, tragedy also imitates by means of spectacle. Both epic and tragedy portray people better or greater than the average spectator, unlike comedy which portrays people as worse than they actually are and uses humour to dissuade us from acting badly (Aristotle's lost treatise on comedy may be summarized in the Tractatus Coislinianus; see also Eco, The Name of the Rose for interesting view of Aristotle on comedy)

Due to practical constraints of production, tragedy ideally has a single unified action which is often restricted to a specific time and place. and a small n umber of characters, while epic has a broader scope of coverage.

You might be interested in
1. Followers of<br> _ are called jews
marissa [1.9K]

Answer: God

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which group of people are considered "unclean" and are outside the caste system?
eimsori [14]
D. Untouchables because they were at the bottom
5 0
3 years ago
Anyone know this game :)<br><br><br>game when i was little​
nlexa [21]

Answer:

i don't know it. what is it about?

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
During the period 800 BCE to 1500 BCE, following the fall of the Roman Empire, Europe seemed to experience a dramatic decline in
patriot [66]

Answer:

The main difference is the presence of knowledge which made Africa, Asia, and the Middle East more developed and modern during the Middle Ages as compared to Europe because in Europe no importance was given to the knowledge by the people which leads to the development of other nations as compared to dark age of the Europe. Other parts of the world experienced “golden ages” during a time when most of the Europe struggled through the Dark Ages because of knowledge which enables other nations to made better their lives.

3 0
2 years ago
How did mesopotamians veiw gods?
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

As powerful deities who should be feared.

Explanation:

To be brief, they believed in a lot of gods, but some were below others. (Deities) And they were associated with the sun, moon, and stars. Anything astral related. They where feared instead of loved like we see in other religions. The gods lived at ease while the people worked for what they had.

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What policy did the united states adopt when war broke out in europe in teh late 1930s
    5·1 answer
  • Indentured servents were widely used by plantation owners in the A. south B. west or C.north ?
    15·1 answer
  • Need answer ASAP will mark brainliest
    7·1 answer
  • A commander in the army at 16 and a king at 20
    9·2 answers
  • The peculiarity of American institutions is, the fact that they have been compelled to adapt themselves to the changes of an exp
    9·1 answer
  • The Dred Scott v. Sanford case in 1857 resulted in the ruling that slaves were…
    7·1 answer
  • Explain how the 13 , 14 , and 15 amendments <br>affected african Americans socially? <br>​
    5·2 answers
  • En que culturas se usa la musica como medio de sanacion
    10·1 answer
  • What land did the u.s acquire after Spanish American war?
    9·1 answer
  • Which of the following countries did the Roman empire NOT trade with?
    10·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!