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8090 [49]
3 years ago
11

What is the GCF of 18w and 30wz

Mathematics
2 answers:
KIM [24]3 years ago
7 0
The GCF of 18w and 30wz is 6w
nadya68 [22]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

6w

Step-by-step explanation:


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On average a herd of elephants travels 10 miles in 12 hours<br>(picture included)
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For the first Q the answer is the first square on the left 10 miles divided by 12 hours = 0,83 miles

And the second Q goes with the last square 12 hours divided by 10 miles = 1.2 h which in minutes is 72 minutes or 1h and 12 minutes.
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On a map, 9 cm represents 15 miles. If the distance between two cities on the map is 15 cm, how many miles separate the cities?
torisob [31]

Answer:

15 cm on the map is equal to 25 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

On a map, 9 cm represents 15 miles.

The distance between two cities is 15 cm. We need to find the distance in miles.

9 cm = 15 miles

1\ cm=\dfrac{15}{9}\ \miles

So, 15 cm is equal to,

15\ cm=\dfrac{15}{9}\times 15\ miles\\\\=25\ miles

So, 15 cm on the map is equal to 25 miles.

4 0
3 years ago
a box has a length of 15 centimetres , a width of 22 centimetres, and a height of 9 centimetres.what is the surface area of the
zzz [600]

Answer:

1326 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Identify the equation of the surface area of a rectangular prism

       A = 2(wl + wh + hl)

2) Input the corresponding values l=15 cm; w=22 cm; and h=9 cm into the equation, and solve for the area

       A=2(wl+wh+hl)\\A=2((22)(15)+(22)(9)+(9)(15))\\A=2(330+198+135)\\A=2(663)\\A=1326 cm^{2}

3) ∴ A=1326cm^2

5 0
1 year ago
A hotel claims that 8585​% of its customers are very satisfied with its service. complete parts a through d below based on a ran
jek_recluse [69]
We can solve this problem using the binomial distribution. A binomial distribution<span> can be thought of as a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times. 
</span>Probability function of binomial distribution has the following form:
P= \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} p^k(1-p)^{n-k}
p represents the probability of each choice we want. k is the number of choices we want and n is the total number of choices.
In our case p=0.85, k=5 and n=6. 
We can now calculate the answer:
P= \frac{6!}{5!(6-5)!} 0.85^5(1-0.85)^{6-5}=0.39
The probability is 39%.
.
7 0
3 years ago
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