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HACTEHA [7]
3 years ago
6

Can someone please answer my last post? (its calculus)

Mathematics
1 answer:
ozzi3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

where is ques

Step-by-step explanation:

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Help me solve this please
Semenov [28]

\huge\underline{ \underline{ \bf{Answer࿐} }}

parallel sides measure :

  • 10 ft -(a)
  • 12 ft. -(b)

Area :

  • 44 ft²

height (h) = x

___________________

\boxed{Area =  \frac{1}{2}  \times (a + b) \times h}

  • \dfrac{1}{2}  \times (10 + 12) \times x = 44

  • \dfrac{1}{2}  \times 22 \times x = 44

  • 11x = 44

  • \boxed{ 4 \:  \: ft}

Therefore, height of Trapezoid is 4 ft

_____________________________

\mathrm{ \#TeeNForeveR}

5 0
3 years ago
Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A dairy scientist is testing a new feed additive. She chooses 13 cows at random from a large population of cows. She randomly as
mina [271]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a dairy scientist is testing a new feed additive. She chooses 13 cows at random from a large population of cows. She randomly assigns nold = 8 to get the old diet, and nnew = 5 to get the new diet including the additive.

From the data given we get the following

           N       Mean      StDev     SE Mean

Sample   1    8           43       5.1824 1.832

Sample   2   5           73     21.0832 9.429

df = 11

Std dev for difference = 13.3689

a) Yes the two are independent.  The two sets of cows randomly chosen are definitely independent. Paired means equal number should be there and homogeneous conditions should be maintained.

b) Enclosed

c) Comparison of two means is the test recommended here.  Because independent samples are used.\

d) Test statistic= -3.1233

(because of unequal variances we use that method)

95% confidence interval =  ( -56.6676 , -3.3324 )

p value <0.05 our alpha

So reject null hypothesis.

The two means are statistically significantly different.

3 0
3 years ago
An IV bag contained 1000 ml of a solution. The solution was administered to a patient and now there is 400 ml left in a bag afte
Jet001 [13]

Answer: 100 ml each hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

1000 -400 =600 used from original amount.

Divide 600/6 = 100 ml per hour.

8 0
3 years ago
a merchant buys a telivision for $125 and sells it for the reatail price of $200. what is the markup.
NISA [10]
Before going to the answer, let's first understand what a mark up is. The mark up is the amount that the seller will add to the purchase cost to the retail cost so that he can earn a profit. So the purchase cost of the television is 125 dollars, and the selling cost or retail cost of the television is 200 dollars. So what is the markup. Simply minus 125 dollars from 200 dollars and you will get the amount added to the purchase cost or simply the mark up. So 200 dollars - 125 dollars is 75 dollars. So 75 dollars is the markup that the merchant put on the television
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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