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pashok25 [27]
3 years ago
9

The hull of a vessel develops a leak and takes on water at a rate of 57.5 gal/min. When the leak is discovered the lower deck is

already submerged to a level of 7.5 inches. At this time, a sailor turns on the bilge pump which begins to remove water at a rate of 73.8 gal/min. As an approximation, the lower deck can be modeled as a flat-bottomed container with a bottom surface area of 510 ft2 and straight vertical sides. How long will it be after the pump is turned on until the deck is clear of water?
Engineering
1 answer:
leva [86]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

It will be around 146,27 min since the pump is turned on until the deck is clear of the water.

Explanation:

When the leak is discovered and the pump is turned on, the lower deck is already submerged and the leak is not fixed; then, in order to have the deck clear of water, the bilge pump has to remove the <em>accumulated water </em>(V_{0}) and the <em>water that is taking on</em> (r_{in}*t) through the leak. We can represent this mathematically as follow:

V_{0} +r_{in} *t-r_{out}*t=0  <em>Equation 1</em>

Where:

V_{0}: is the accumulated water when the leak was discovered

r_{in}: is the takes on rate through the leak = 57.5 gal/min

r_{out}: is the removing rate of the bilge pump = 73.8 gal/min

t= is the time since the pump is turned on until the deck is clear of water.

To calculate the accumulated water (V_{0}), we will model the lower deck as a flat-bottomed container with a bottom surface area of 510 ft^{2} and straight vertical sides. Knowing that the level submerged is 7.5 inches, and performing the corresponding unit conversions, we obtain:

V_{0}= bottom surface area * lever submerged

V_{0}= 510ft^{2}*7.5 in*\frac{1ft}{12in}=318.75 ft^{3}*7.48\frac{gal}{1ft^{3}}=2384.25 gal <em>Equation 2</em>

Solving equation 1 for time (t), and replacing the value obtained in equation 2, we get:

t=\frac{V_{0}}{(r_{out}-r_{in})} =\frac{2384.25 gal}{(73.8-57.5)gal/min}=146,27 min

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azamat

Answer:

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For the above-cited practical reasons and because it is also an aesthetically pleasing medium, brick has been used as a building material for at least 5,000 years. The first brick was probably made in the Middle East, between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in what is now Iraq. Lacking the stone their contemporaries in other regions used for permanent structures, early builders here relied on the abundant natural materials to make their sun-baked bricks. These, however, were of limited use because they lacked durability and could not be used outdoors; exposure to the elements caused them to disintegrate. The Babylonians, who later dominated Mesopotamia, were the first to fire bricks, from which many of their tower-temples were constructed.

From the Middle East the art of brickmaking spread west to what is now Egypt and east to Persia and India. Although the Greeks, having a plentiful supply of stone, did not use much brick, evidence of brick kilns and structures remains throughout the Roman Empire. However, with the decline and fall of Rome, brickmaking in Europe soon diminished. It did not resume until the 1200s, when the Dutch made bricks that they seem to have exported to England. In the Americas, people began to use brick during the sixteenth century. It was the Dutch, however, who were considered expert craftsmen.

Prior to the mid-1800s, people made bricks in small batches, relying on relatively inefficient firing methods. One of the most widely used was an open clamp, in which bricks were placed on a fire beneath a layer of dirt and used bricks. As the fire died down over the course of several weeks, the bricks fired. Such methods gradually became obsolete after 1865, when the Hoffmann kiln was invented in Germany. Better suited to the manufacture of large numbers of bricks, this kiln contained a series of compartments through which stacked bricks were transferred for pre-heating, burning, and cooling.

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Read more: http://www.madehow.com/Volume-1/Brick.html#ixzz6JyObrRwm

Explanation:

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Answer:

uhgj!j#j#j#j!j

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Ammonia at 20 C with a quality of 50% and a total mass of 2 kg is in a rigid tank with an outlet valve at the bottom. How much s
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Answer:

16.38L

Explanation:

Through laboratory tests, thermodynamic tables were developed, these allow to know all the thermodynamic properties of a substance (entropy, enthalpy, pressure, specific volume, internal energy etc ..)  

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Quality is defined as the ratio between the amount of steam and liquid when a fluid is in a state of saturation, this means that since the quality is 50%, 1kg is liquid and 1kg is steam.

then to solve this problem we find the specific volume for ammonia in a saturated liquid state at 20C, and multiply it by mass (1kg)

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3 years ago
Define the stress and strength? A material has yield strength 100 kpsi. A cantilever beam has length 10 in and a load of 100 Lbf
Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

Stress is a force that acts on a unit area of a material. The strength of a material is how much stress it can bear without permanently deforming or breaking.

Is the beam design acceptable for a SF of 2? YES

Explanation:

Your factor of safety is 2, this means your stress allowed is:

  • σall = YS/FS = 100kpsi/2 = 50kpsi

Where:

  • σall => Stress allowed
  • YS => Yield Strength
  • FS => Factor of safety

Now we are going to calculate the shear stress and bending stresses of the proposed scenario. If the calculated stresses are less than the allowed stress, that means the design is adequate for a factor of safety of 2.

First off we calculate the reaction force on your beam. And for this you do sum of forces in the Y direction and equal to 0 because your system is in equilibrium:

  1. ΣFy = 0
  2. -100 + Ry = 0     thus,
  3. Ry = 100 lbf

Knowing this reaction force you can already calculate the shear stress on the cantilever beam:

  1. τ = F/A
  2. τ = 100lbf/(2in*5in)
  3. τ = 10 psi

Now, you do a sum of moments at the fixed end of your cantilever beam, so you can cancel off any bending moment associated with the reaction forces on the fixed end, and again equal to 0 because your system is in equilibrium.

  1. ΣM = 0
  2. -100lbf*10in + M = 0
  3. M = 1000 lbf-in

Knowing the maximum bending moment you can now calculate your bending stress as follows:

  • σ = M*c/Ix

Where:

  • σ => Bending Stress
  • M => Bending Moment
  • c => Distance from the centroid of your beam geometry to the outermost fiber.
  • Ix => Second moment area of inertia

Out of the 3 values needed, we already know M. But we still need to figure out c and Ix. Getting c is very straight forward, since you have a rectangle with base (b) 2 and height (h) 5, you know the centroid is right at the center of the rectangle, meaning that the distance from the centroid to the outermost fibre would be 5in/2=2.5in

To calculate the moment of Inertia, you need to use the formula for the second moment of Inertia of a rectangle and knowing that you will use Ix since you are bending over the x axis:

  • Ix = (b*h^3)/12 = (2in*5in^3)/12 = 20.83 in4

Now you can use this numbers in your bending stress formula:

  1. σ = M*c/Ix
  2. σ = 1000 lbf-in * 2.5in / 20.83 in4
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The shear stress is 10psi and the bending stress is 120psi, this means you are way below the stress allowed which is 50,000 psi, thus the beam design is acceptable. You could actually use a different geometry to optimize your design.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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