Answer:
Find attached complete question:
common stock dividends is $38,960
preferred stock dividends is $5,040
Explanation:
Going by the complete question,preferred stock dividends is computed thus:
preferred stock dividends=number of shares*par value*dividend rate
number of shares is 7000 (issued and outstanding)
par value of share is $12
dividend rate is 6%
preferred stock dividend=7000*$12*6%=$5040
The preferred stockholders would receive $5040 dividends while the remainder of dividends goes to common stockholders as shown below
Total dividends $44,000
preferred stock dividends ($5040)
common stock dividends $38,960
Answer:
The annualy payment for theamortized loan is $6,802.44
Explanation:
First we will find the total loan payment TP for the $20,000 borrowed over the next four years with a annual return of 8%:
TP = $20,000 *(1+8%)^4
TP = $20,000 *(1.08)^4
TP = $20,000 *1.3605 = $27,209.7
The annual payments AN is obtained by dividing the TP into the 4 years:
AN = $27,209.7 / 4 = $6,802.44
The opportunity cost of attending class is the $15 that could have been made by watching a neighbor's child.
Opportunity cost refers to the benefits that one gives up in order to enjoy another benefit, that is, the benefit that is sacrificed.
In this question, two benefits are given up, but the real opportunity cost is the one that have the highest value, which is the $15.
Answer: 0.9
Explanation:
The Expected Return on an investment can be calculated using the Dividend Discount Model as it is a key component in thw formula which is,
P = D1 / r - g
where,
D1 is the dividend paid next year
P is the current stock price
g is the growth rate
r is the expected return
With the given figures we have,
84 = 4.20 / r - 0.08
84 ( r - 0.08) = 4.20
r - 0.08 = 4.20/84
r = 4.20/84 + 0.08
r = 0.13
The Expected Return can be slotted into the CAPM formula to find the beta.
The CAPM formula calculates the Expected Return in the following manner,
Er = Rf + b( Rm - rF)
Where,
Er is expected return
Rf is the risk free rate
Rm is the market return
b is beta
Slotting in the figures gives,
0.13 = 0.04 + b( 0.14 - 0.04)
0.13 = 0.04 + b (0.1)
0.13 - 0.04 = 0.1b
b = 0.09/0.1
b = 0.9
Using the constant-growth DDM and the CAPM, the beta of the stock is 0.9
Answer:
KJ Pharma Corporation
KJ Pharma's after-tax cost of debt is:
= 4.55%.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Face value of the bond = $100
Annual coupon rate (cost of debt) = 6.5%
Maturity period of bond = 20 years
Tax rate = 30%
After-Tax Cost of Debt = 6.5 (1 - 0.3)
= 4.55%
b) KJ Pharma's after-tax cost of debt is the interest paid on the bond less any income tax savings accounted for as deductible interest expenses. To calculate the after-tax cost of debt, KJ subtracts the company's effective tax rate from 1 and multiplies the difference by its cost of debt.
