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KATRIN_1 [288]
3 years ago
14

Billy’s employer pays for 65% of his annual health insurance premium. Billy has the rest deducted in equal amounts from his payc

heck. If Billy has $105.73 withheld from his paychecks twice each month, how much does his employer contribute towards his health insurance on an annual basis?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Alenkasestr [34]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

4712.54

Step-by-step explanation:

His total annual premium 4712.54 . Billy received the deducted by $105.73 paycheck, twice a month throughout the year, so he received 24 deducted paychecks in a year.  The sum of all the deducted $105.73 amount throughout the year will be the 35% of Billy's total annual health insurance premium.

To get the amount his employer contribute towards his health insurance on an annual basis, we will have to multiply the sum deducted by twice a month throughout the year in which he received deducted paychecks.    

105.73 * 24  = 2537.52

The next step is to divide our answer with 35% of Billy's total annual health insurance premium.  

x = 2537.52/.35

x = 7250.06

7250.06 * 0.65 = 4712.54

wariber [46]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the arc measure of BDC in degrees?<br> (4k + 159)<br> P<br> (2k + 153)
andre [41]
<h2>Explanation:</h2><h2></h2>

The diagram is missing but I'll assume that the arc BDC is:

(4k + 159)^{\circ}

And another arc, let's call it FGH. measures:

(2k + 153)^{\circ}

If those arc are equal, then this equation is true:

(4k + 159)^{\circ}=(2k + 153)^{\circ} \\ \\ (4k + 159)=(2k + 153) \\ \\ \\ Solving \ for \ k: \\ \\ 4k-2k=153-159 \\ \\ 2k=-6 \\ \\ k=-\frac{6}{2} \\ \\ k=-3

Substituting k into the first equation:

\angle BDC=(4(-3)+159)^{\circ} \\ \\ \angle BDC=(-12+159)^{\circ} \\ \\ \boxed{\angle BDC=147^{\circ}}

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-2x-y=-5 In slope intercept form please! :)
schepotkina [342]

Answer:

-2x - y = -5 in slop intercept form would be <u>y = -2x + 5 </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x - y = -5

first add -2x to the left side to move it to the right side because whatever you do to one side u do to the other.

-y = -5 + 2x

divide by -1 on the whole equation

y = -2x + 5 is your answer.

8 0
3 years ago
Coach Evans recorded the height, in inches of each player on his team. The results are shown.
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Team heights (inches):

61, 57, 63, 62, 60, 64, 60, 62, 63

To find: IQRs (interquartile ranges) of the heights for the team

Solution:

A quartile divides the number of terms in the data into four more or less equal parts that is quarters.

For a set of data, a number for which 25% of the data is less than that number is known as the first quartile (Q_1)

For a set of data, a number for which 75% of the data is less than that number is known as the third quartile (Q_3)

Terms in arranged in ascending order:

57,60,60,61,62,62,63,63,64

Number of terms = 9

As number of terms is odd, exclude the middle term that is 62.

Q_1 is median of terms 57,60,60,61

Number of terms (n) = 4

Median = \frac{(\frac{n}{2})^{th} +(\frac{n}{2}+1)^{th}  }{2} =\frac{2^{nd}+3^{rd}}{2} =\frac{60+60}{2}=\frac{120}{2}=60

So, Q_1=60

So, 25% of the heights of a team is less than 60 inches

Q_3 is the median of terms 62,63,63,64

Median = \frac{(\frac{n}{2})^{th} +(\frac{n}{2}+1)^{th}  }{2} =\frac{2^{nd}+3^{rd}}{2} =\frac{63+63}{2}=\frac{126}{2}=63

So, Q_3=63

So, 75% of the heights of a team is less than 63 inches

Interquartile range = Q_3-Q_1=63-60=3

The interquartile range is a measure of variability on dividing a data set into quartiles.

The interquartile range is the range of the middle 50% of the terms in the data.

So, 3 is the range of the middle 50% of the heights of the students.

4 0
3 years ago
An accounting firm is planning for the next tax preparation season. From last years returns, the firm collects a systematic rand
Elena L [17]

Answer:

a)From the central limit theorem we know that the distribution for the sample mean \bar X is given by:

\bar X \sim N(\mu, \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}})

And the standard error for the mean would be:

\sigma_{\bar X}= \frac{140}{\sqrt{100}} =14

b) We want this probability:

P(\bar X >120)

And we can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{\bar X -\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}

And replacing we got:

z = \frac{120-90}{\frac{140}{\sqrt{100}}}= 2.143

And we can find this probability with the complement rule and the normal standard deviation or excel and we got:

P( z>2.143) = 1-P(Z

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

Normal distribution, is a "probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean".  

The central limit theorem states that "if we have a population with mean μ and standard deviation σ and take sufficiently large random samples from the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample means will be approximately normally distributed. This will hold true regardless of whether the source population is normal or skewed, provided the sample size is sufficiently large".

Solution to the problem

Part a

From the central limit theorem we know that the distribution for the sample mean \bar X is given by:

\bar X \sim N(\mu, \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}})

And the standard error for the mean would be:

\sigma_{\bar X}= \frac{140}{\sqrt{100}} =14

Part b

We want this probability:

P(\bar X >120)

And we can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{\bar X -\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}}

And replacing we got:

z = \frac{120-90}{\frac{140}{\sqrt{100}}}= 2.143

And we can find this probability with the complement rule and the normal standard deviation or excel and we got:

P( z>2.143) = 1-P(Z

4 0
3 years ago
Jarrett's puppy weighed 3 3/4 ounces at Birth. At 1 week old, the puppy weighed 5 1/8 ounces. At 2 weeks old, the puppy weighed
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:  The answer is 7\dfrac{7}{8} ounces.

Step-by-step explanation: Given in the question the weight of Jarrett's puppy at birth, one week old and 2 weeks old are as follows:

b_0=3\dfrac{3}{4}=\dfrac{15}{4}~\textup{ounces},\\\\\\b_1=5\dfrac{1}{8}=\dfrac{41}{8}~\textup{ounces},\\\\\\b_3=6\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{13}{2}~\textup{ounces}.

We can see that

b_1-b_0=b_2-b_1=\dfrac{11}{8}.

So, the weight of the baby will make an arithmetic progression with first term 'a' and common difference 'd' as follows:

b_0=\dfrac{15}{4},~~d=\dfrac{11}{8}.

Thus, the weight of the puupy after 3 weeks will be

b_3=b_0+3\times d=\dfrac{15}{4}+3\times\dfrac{11}{8}=\dfrac{30+33}{8}=\dfrac{63}{8}=7\dfrac{7}{8}~\textup{ounces}.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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