This should help a little, I hope:
Stalin:
-Communist
-No Private Property
Mussolini:
-Fascist
-Private Property
In other words, I believe it is C.
Germany was able to become an important industrial power during the nineteenth century by doing the following:
Germany acquired territory rich in iron ore:
- this is evident when Germany unified many states, excluding Austria and Switzerland.
France paid a hefty war fine, and Germany reinvested the money in industrial:
- this is evident in the 1871 war victory over France, which led to the Treaty of Frankfurt.
Bismarck unified the German lands by going to war with France:
- this is evident when Germany unified southern German states to fight the French in the Franco-Prussian war.
Scientists and engineers developed many inventions:
- this is evident with many German inventors such as Ferdinand von Zeppelin, Otto Lilienthal, Gottlieb Daimler, Rudolf Diesel, Hugo Junkers, etc industrialists during this period.
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that Germany became an important industrial power during the nineteenth century based on many reasons.
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/16013696
No. There will always be inequality in the United States and quite frankly I don’t think any country can be truly equal.
1939 for the brits and Germans
