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Varvara68 [4.7K]
3 years ago
11

There are several bridges along highway 280 which are free to ride on. This bridge was built and is being maintained by the gove

rnment... not the "free" market. Let's think about why that is the case... The economic logic of government ownership and having a marginal price of 0 (that is, it is free to cross the bridge) is:
Business
1 answer:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The bridge 's owner has a natural monopoly, and the marginal production cost (letting another car drive through it) is close to nil.

Explanation:

Since building several bridges to compete is inefficient, but building one bridge at a lower average cost to customers would be effective. If the private monopolist builds the bridge it can charge customers exceptionally high prices.

There is a high fixed cost involved with constructing a bridge. Hence constructing a bridge is a mere privilege. Furthermore, there is no extra cost to allow another car to cross the bridge. It means that the marginal cost is zero or closer.

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Imagine you are the owner of a small local peanut butter company. You have many competitors in the peanut butter market but your
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

keeping a competitive edge

8 0
2 years ago
Two-year-old Max sees a rabbit and calls it a "bunny." He then sees a large white hamster and calls it a "bunny," too. In this s
Olegator [25]

Answer:

The correct answer is overextension.

Explanation:

In the context of language acquisition, it refers to the erroneous over-generalization in the use of a word; that is, to the error that consists in extending the application of words to entities or objects not included in the concept or category of reference, even if they share certain characteristics. For example, the word "dog" is used to correctly designate dogs; but it is also used in reference to any other animal with "four legs."

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you are a member of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. The economy is experiencing a sharp rise
monitta

As a member of the Federal Reserve Board, in an inflationary situation I would suggest a change in the federal funds rate that would be accomplished by raising the base interest rate of the US economy. This would make bonds more attractive and people would stop consuming to invest in public debt securities. In addition, raising interest rates would discourage credit, causing banks to lend less. Since inflation is a monetary phenomenon caused by the excess of currency in circulation, these measures would have a downward effect on inflation, as they reduce the amount of money in circulation in the economy.

6 0
3 years ago
g suppose that a commercial bank wants to buy treasury bills. these instruments pay $500 in one year and are currently selling f
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

9.98%

Explanation:

Yield to maturity is the annual rate of return that an investor receives if a bond bond is held until the maturity. It is a long term return which is expressed in annual term.

As per given data

Annual Payment = $500

Current price = $5,012

$500 payment each year for indefinite period of time is a perpetuity, value of perpetuity can be calculated as follow

Current Price = Annual Payment / Yield to maturity

Yield to maturity = Annual Payment / Current Price

Yield to maturity = ( Annual payment / Current price ) x 100

Yield to maturity = ( $500 / $5,012 ) x 100

Yield to maturity = 0.0998 x 100

Yield to maturity = 9.98%

3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2022, the Sheridan Company ledger shows Equipment $49,700 and Accumulated Depreciation $18,280. The depreciation r
Lisa [10]

Answer:

revised annual depreciation will be : 13710

Explanation:

After revision the remaining life of equipment shrank down to 2 years, so the depreciation working will be worked out to adjusted the impact of decreasing of useful life.

As per existing information the depreciation charges are calculated as :

(Cost-Salvage Value)/Useful life= (49700-4000)/10 = 4570

Accumulated Depreciation indicates that 4 years have past by (18280/4570)

now remaining years are 6 which will be reduced to 2 after revision so the new working will be as follows:

Remaining Cost :31420  (49700 -18280)

Salvage Value : 4000

Revised Remaining Useful Life  : 2

Revised Calculated Depreciation Annual  : (31420-4000)/2 = 13710

It can be further verified through simple math also:

Adding annual depreciation of remaining 2 years : 13710 +13710 =27420

Value available for depreciation after salvage value : 31420 -4000= 27420

3 0
3 years ago
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