Answer:
$1.30
Explanation:
The valuation of TJ's = price per share * number of shares in issue
= $16.70 * 2,500 shares = $41,750.
Corner Grocery offer for TJ's of $45,000, and obviously a premium over the market value of TJ's at $41,750.
The price per share of Corner Grocery's offer = 
= $18 per share.
That is, offer value divided by the number of shares to be acquired.
Therefore, merger premium per share = offer price, less market price
= $18 - $16.70.
= $1.30
Answer:
Transfer pricing are the prices established to record inter-company sale
Explanation:
The transfer price is the price at which one arm of a business sells to the other.For instance,the price at which one division of a company sells to another division,
The transfer price is very important in order that tax authority may see that the sale price charged is at arms length for all parties involved.
The correct options about the international obtaining of funds are:
- Money markets
- Capital markets
<h3 /><h3>
Money Market</h3>
The money market is a good form to obtain money to capitalize a company, it functions when an enterprise negotiate debt instruments to short term, giving to the buyer low risk and high profitability, in this form, the company obtain for a shor term a large mount of money and can invest in technology, resources or others to improve and grow.
If you want to learn more about Financial Market, you can visit the following link: brainly.com/question/15960668?referrer=searchResults
Answer:
WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T) + Kp(P/V)
WACC = 15(60/100) + 5(30/100)(1-0.3) + 10(10/100)
WACC = 9 + 1.05 + 1
WACC = 11.05%
Explanation:
Weighted average cost of capital is a function of cost of common stock and the proportion of common stock in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt and proportion of debt in the capital structure plus cost of preferred stock and the proportion of preferred stock in the capital structure. Ke = Cost of equity or common stock, kd = cost of debt and kp = cost of preferred stock.
Answer:
The present value of the dividends to be paid out over the next six years if the required rate of return is 15 percent is $6.57
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The present value =∑ ⁿ t=1 cf/ (1 +r)t
where cf= cash flow
r =the required rate of return
t = the number of years
Now
The present value will be:
cf₁/(1+r)^1 + cf₂/(1 +)^2 + cf₃/(1+r)3 + cf₄/(1 +r)^4) + cf₅/(1 +r)^5 + cf₆/(1+r)^6
Hence,
cf₁, cf₂ cf₃ = 0 as the firm does not expect to pay dividend in the next three years
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