Answer:
$16400
$8200
Explanation:
Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset
Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)
Depreciation factor = 2/4 = 0.5
Depreciation expense in year 1 = 0.5 x $32,800 = $16,400
Book value at the beginning of year 2 = $32,800 - $16,400 = $16400
Depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.5 x $16,400= $8200
Answer:
11,513
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Initial bacteria = 200
Growth rate r(t) = 
Now,
Total growth after 3 hours = 
or
Total growth after 3 hours = 
or
Total growth after 3 hours =![450.268[\frac{e^{1.12567t}}{1.12567}]^3_0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=450.268%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B1.12567t%7D%7D%7B1.12567%7D%5D%5E3_0)
[ ∵
]
Thus,
Total growth after 3 hours = 400 × ![[{e^{1.12567t}]^3_0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%7Be%5E%7B1.12567t%7D%5D%5E3_0)
or
Total growth after 3 hours = 400 × ![[{e^{1.12567(3)}-e^{1.12567(0)}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%7Be%5E%7B1.12567%283%29%7D-e%5E%7B1.12567%280%29%7D%5D)
or
Total growth after 3 hours ≈ 11313
Hence,
Total bacteria after 3 hours = Initial bacteria + Total growth after 3 hours
= 200 + 11313
= 11,513
Answer: 1. D) Assets are understated
2. D) Car dealers
Explanation:
1. The shipping costs to bring Inventory into a business are known as Carriage Inwards. This amount is to be debited with the Inventory as it is considered to be part of the cost of acquiring the inventory. By not putting this cost with the inventory, ABC is undervaluing the inventory account which is an Asset account. The Assets are therefore understated.
2. The Specific Identification Method of inventory valuation is based on each individual unit purchased or sold. It does not group items and tracks each item from the moment it is purchased to the moment it is sold so the cost of the specific inventory is known. This method is used more often by businesses that deal with easily identifiable items such as Jewellers and Car dealers because each car is big enough to be tracked individually.
Answer:
If Verizon charges an optimal two-part price thenconsumer surplus will be zero.
Explanation:
Given a competitive market the consumer surplus will be the area of the demand curve above the market price
This is, between the intersection point with Y axis and a parallel at market price. Ofter represent as a triangle
If a monopolistic company maximize profit It will decrease this consumer surplus as much as it can to gain it from itself.
First it will set price equal to his marginal revenue.
Then, if possible it will charge two tariff a fixed component and a variable component per usage This will extrac all consumer surplus in favor of the firm leaving a consumer surplus of zero.
If Verizon charges an optimal two-part price thenconsumer surplus will be zero.
Answer:
$3,500
Explanation:
Placing a stop-loss order at $165 means that the last amount that the stock traded, it had a price of $165 per share.
Based on that, it is evident that each stock has lost $35 when compared to the price at which the stop-loss order was placed and the initial cost per share of $200.
Loss per share=$200-$165=$35
The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=loss per share*number of shares owned
The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=$35*100
The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=$3,500