Answer:
Only the fourth statement is correct
Explanation:
The first statement is wrong as stock price can be worth less than its book or par value depending on the performance of the company from which the stock price derives its value.
The second statement is also not correct as convertibility implies that holders of preference shares or bonds are able to convert their holdings into a known quantity of common stock in the future not the other way round.
Dividend payments are fixed for only preferred stockholders,common stockholders are exposed to variable dividend payments which dependent on the performance of the company and the also the company's need for cash.
Limited liability is a protective provision as it aids corporation in raising funds as the investors are certain that their liability in case of the company in the event of the going bankrupt is limited to the amount invested in the company unlike sole proprietorship that could be made to pay debts from private pockets
Answer:
A company's stock price is defined by the demand the market has over it, by the analyst researching it and their forecast of growth, as well as the performance of the company at generating income.
Explanation:
The P/E ratio or price over earnings ratio is the ratio that explains the price of a stock. We take the price of the stock and then divide it by the earnings per share obtained by quarter and then by year when the fiscal year is over. It is influenced by the demand of the stock in the markets, by the projection analyst may have after researching the company and by the income, the company generates. Today there is an overvaluation of the stocks in all the markets. However by following the advice of W. Buffett and Peter Lynch, as well as Soros we can find undervalued stocks.
Answer:
9.90%
Explanation:
The appropriate approach is to include the amount expected to kept in non-interest bearing account as part of the loan
total loan=$400,000/0.95= 421,052.63
Interest charge = 421,052.63*9%*6/12=$18,947.37
interest rate percentage=$18,947.37/$400,000=4.74%
Effective annual rate=(1+4.74%
/6)^12-1 =9.90%
By dividing by 6, the interest is expressed in monthly terms
By raising to the power of 12 , it is expressed in yearly terms
Answer:
Explanation:
USD GBP Prefers
Dell 7 9 GBP
Virgin Airlines 8 8.5 USD
In a swap exchange Party A will have a relative preferred position in one money and Party B will have a bit of leeway in the other cash. For this situation Dell has a similar bit of leeway in USD getting rate and Virgin has a preferred position in GBP acquiring rate.
Additionally note that dependent on the FICO assessments of the organization the acquiring rate will vary pulling in parties for a swap exchange.
Virgin would borrow £10 million for two years and Dell would borrow $16 million for two years. The two companies would then swap their proceeds and payment streams. Then they enter into a swap agreement to exchange their cash flows to get their preferred currency rates with an interest rate mutually benefiting both the parties.
