First, you have to calculate the amount of tuition when the student reaches age 18. Do this by multiplying $11,000 by 1.07 each year from age 12 until it reaches age 18. Thus, 7 times.
At age 18: 16,508
At age 19: 17,664
At age 20: 18,900
At age 21: 20,223
Then, we use this formula:
A = F { i/{[(1+i)^n] - 1}}
where A is the monthly deposit each year, F is the half amount of the tuition each year illustrated in the first part of this solution, n is the number of years lapsed.
At age 18:
A = (16508/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^6] - 1}} = $1,244.389 deposit for the 1st year
Ate age 19
A = (17664/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^7] = $1,118 deposit for the 2nd year
At age 20:
A = (18900/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^8] = $1,025 deposit for the 3rd year
At age 21:
A = (18900/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^8] = $955 deposit for the 4th year
Answer:
A price floor set above the equilibrium price will result in a surplus of supply.
Explanation.
An equilibrium price refers to the price at which demand for a service or product is equivalent to the quantity of the product or service supplied in the market.
Setting a price floor above the equilibrium price essentially means that the set prices will be higher than what demand is willing to pay for the product or service. Demand will therefore purchase fewer quantity of the product offered by supply at the prevailing price than they would have at equilibrium price.
Since the price floor will raise the product price to considerably higher than the equilibrium price, supply will be willing to provide higher volumes of the product at the prevailing price than at equilibrium price.
This will lead to a mismatch in the market between supply and demand resulting into a surplus.
The reason why commodity futures contracts are transferable is: <span>They can be bought and sold but the obligation in the contract remains valid.
Commodity futures contract is an agreement to buy or sell a specific asset at a specific price somewhere in the future.
This contract does not specify the name of the person who should buys the asset, so it could be transferable as long as the exchange is still fuiflled.
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Answer:beta
Explanation:Beta is a measure of a stock's volatility in relation to the overall market.
Beta is a component of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), which is used to calculate the cost of equity funding. The CAPM formula uses the total average market return and the beta value of the stock to determine the rate of return that shareholders might reasonably expect based on perceived investment risk. In this way, beta can impact a stock's expected rate of return and share valuation.
Beta is calculated using regression analysis. Numerically, it represents the tendency for a security's returns to respond to swings in the market. The formula for calculating beta is the covariance of the return of an asset with the return of the benchmark divided by the variance of the return of the benchmark over a certain period.
Answer:
$13.89
Explanation:
The computation of the value of stock is shown below:
Year Dividend Present value factor at 16% Present value
1 $1.90 0.862 $1.64
2 $2.10 0.743 $1.56
3 $2.30
Price $14.375 0.743 $10.68
The price is computed below:
= $2.30 ÷ 16% = $14.375
Total present value $13.89
The present value factor is computed below:
= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years
For Year 1 = 1 ÷ 1.16^1 = 0.862
For Year 2 = 1 ÷ 1.16^2 = 0.743
