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sladkih [1.3K]
4 years ago
14

What reason does Macbeth give for killing King Duncan's guards?

Business
1 answer:
Ber [7]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Macbeth claimed that he had found the guards covered in the blood of King Duncan.

Explanation:

He further used this to explain how the sight drove him to a point of extreme grief and being so distraught he was overcome with the need to avenge the murder of his King. Using this false story, Macbeth was successful in diverting any suspicion from him without the need of potential suspects -meaning there would be no one to argue or prove their innocence if whoever was blamed for it was no longer living.

<h3>Hope this helps!</h3>
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Phân biệt triết lý bán hàng và triết lý Marketing
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

I don't understand the language

5 0
3 years ago
this flight is operated by a partner airline united seat selection and changes are not available for this flight at this time. y
-Dominant- [34]

Partner Airline
Partnerships
between or among airlines are known as airline alliances. Through these partnerships, airlines can pool resources, add or expand partner routes, and even provide the opportunity for customers to accrue and redeem miles through one another's rewards systems.

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For the spring of 2020, I'm looking into multi-city flights from Seattle to Rome and Rome to Seattle. On Lufthansa, premium economy is not an option for the dates I'm considering. However, I can discover routes flown by Lufthansa on the United website and have the option of choosing premium economy. However, I am unable to choose seats on the United website. It informs me "On this flight, there are no available advance seat assignments on united.com. You can go to the operating airline's website for more information after completing your purchase." I am less than certain that we will truly enter premium economy and may instead wind up in ordinary economy as a result of this. Please share your insights into this kind of reservation! Thanks!

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3 0
1 year ago
Which of the following is NOT a risk of exporting? Select one: a. Delegation of marketing activities to a local agent b. Locatio
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

E. High manufacturing cost

Explanation:

Export involves the sales of goods and services to another country. It is part of the international trade whereby goods produced in a country are sold to other countries. Just like all business activities, there are risk involved. Risk of exporting is the likelihood that there will be a loss in the sales of goods and services to another country. Various risk factors includes tariff barriers, cost of transportation and so on.

However, high manufacturing cost is not a risk of exporting. High manufacturing cost is the increase in the cost of producing and manufacturing a certain good. When this increases or rather when it's high, the prices of the products manufactured also increases. So there is no potential loss posed by high manufacturing cost.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As the CEO of a pharmaceutical company, Simone learned that the government was about to block the import of one of the company's
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

She is guilty of Insider trading.

Explanation:

Insider trading is an illegal practice where a person indulges in trading activities for his own benefit with the help of confidential information.

In the above case, Simone took park in insiders trading because she had rights to some confidential information. She made use of that information towards her benefit and sold her shares before time.

I hope the answer was helpful.

3 0
3 years ago
Young Co. issues $800,000 of 10% bonds dated January 1, Year 1. Interest is payable semiannually on June 30 and December 31. The
Andreyy89

Answer:

Young should report proceeds from the sale of bonds as equal to $864,884

Explanation:

The proceeds on the sale of bonds is equivalent to the present value of all the cash flows that are likely to accrue to an investor once the bond is bought. These cash-flows are the periodic coupon payments that are paid semi-annually and the par value of the bond that will be paid at the end of the 5 years.

During the 5 years, there are 10 equal periodic coupon payments that will be made. In each  year, the total coupon paid will be

$800,000*0.1=$80,000

and this payment will be split into two equal payments equal to \frac{$80,000}{2} = $40,000 . This stream of cash-flows is an ordinary annuity

The periodic market rate is equal to \frac{0.08}{2}=0.04

The  PV of the cashflows = PV of the coupon payments + PV of the par value of the bond

=$40,000*PV Annuity Factor for 10 periods at 4%+ $800,000*\frac{1}{(1+0.04)^10}

=$40,000*8.1109+$800,000*0.67556=$864,884

4 0
3 years ago
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