Answer:
40.49cm²
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope it helps
Answer:
0.004 km; 400 cm; 4000 mm
Step-by-step explanation:
1 km = 1000 m
1 = (1 km)/(1000 m)
4 m * (1 km)/(1000 m) = 4/1000 km = 0.004 km
1 m = 100 cm
1 = (100 cm)/(1 m)
4 m * (100 cm)/(1 m) = 400 cm
1 m = 1000 mm
1 = (1000 mm)/(1 m)
4 m * (1000 mm)/(1 m) = 4000 mm
Answer: 0.004 km; 400 cm; 4000 mm
So volue of a cone=1/3 times (area of base[which is a circle]) times height
area of base=area of circle=pi time radius^2
area=pi times 5^2
area=pi times 25=25pi
1/3 times 25pi times 18
25pi times 18 times 1/3
25pi times 18/3
25pi times 6=150pi
the answer is 150π in^3 or 150π cubic inches or C
( to solve, aprox pi to 3.141592 an multiply 150 by 3.141592=471.239 in^3)
Let “x” represent the cost of the dryer in dollars
The washer costs 3x dollars
3x + x = 1000
4x = 1000
x = 250
The dryer is $250
For 6 the answer is c because 1 fourth goes into one and a half 6 times so you do 6 times 4 feet which is 24 feet
